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PEDIA > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

Which is not part of the rule of 2s in patients with Meckel’s Diverticulum?

a. 2% of the general population
b. located 2 feet distal to the ileocecal valve
c. 2 inches in length
d. contain 2 types of ectopic tissue (pancreatic or gastric)

A

b. located 2 feet distal to the ileocecal valve

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2
Q

Which congenital defect is not associated with Pyloric Stenosis?

a. TEF
b. Hypoplasia frenulum
c. agenesis of inferior labial frenulum
d. Rectal Prolapse

A

d. Rectal Prolapse

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3
Q

What is the most common type of Treacheoesophageal Atresia?

a. Type A
b. Type C
c. Type D
d. Type H

A

b. Type C

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4
Q

Which is not a Secretory Type of Diarrhea?

a. Neuroblastoma
b. Lactose Deficiency
c. Toxigenic E.coli
d. Cholera

A

b. Lactose Deficiency

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5
Q

What diarrhea disease (WHO) lasts for 14 days or longer?

a. Acute watery diarrhea
b. Dysentery
c. Persistent Diarrhea
d. Diarrhea with malnutrition

A

c. Persistent Diarrhea

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6
Q

Which is not an indication in getting a stool exam?

a. Viral Diarrhea
b. Diarrhea last more than 1 week c. Bloody diarrhea
d. Epidemics
e. Immunocompromised patients

A

a. Viral Diarrhea

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7
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly in the esophagus?

a. Hiatal hernia
b. Tracheoesophageal Atresia
c. Esophageal Stenosis
d. Gastroesophageal reflux

A

b. Tracheoesophageal Atresia

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8
Q

What is the most common esophageal disorder in children in all ages?

a. Hiatal Hernia
b. Tracheoesophageal Atresia
c. Esophageal Stenosis
d. Gastroesophageal reflux

A

d. Gastroesophageal reflux

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9
Q

Which is not a factor that determines esophageal manifestations in GERD?

a. Duration of esophageal exposure (product of frequency and duration of reflux episode)
b. Causticity of the refluxate
c. Location of the lesion
d. Susceptibility of the esophagus to damage

A

c. Location of the lesion

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10
Q

Which is not a good sleeping position in patients with GERD?

a. Elevate head
b. Left sided position
c. Excessive pillows
d. Supine Position

A

c. Excessive pillows

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11
Q

Which antibiotics is risk factor in developing Pyloric Stenosis?

a. Amoxicillin
b. Erythromycin
c. Cefuroxime
d. Meropenem

A

b. Erythromycin

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12
Q

Which is a clinical manifestation of Pyloric Stenosis?

a. Metabolic Acidosis
b. Hyperchloremic Metabolic alkalosis
c. Hyperglycemic Alkalosis
d. Hypokalemic metabolic Acidosis

A

b. Hyperchloremic Metabolic alkalosis

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13
Q

Which is not a common location for intrinsic intestinal obstruction?

a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Ileum
d. colon

A

d. colon

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14
Q

Which is the most common type of Malrotation?

a. Non-rotation
b. failure of the cecum to move into the RUQ
c. tube straighten up from stomach to rectum
d. elongation of the duodenum

A

b. failure of the cecum to move into the RUQ

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15
Q

Which is not a risk factor of TEF?

a. Cardiac Anomalies
b. VATER Syndrome
c. <1.5 kgs BW
d. Male Gender

A

d. Male Gender

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16
Q

What is the imaging of choice in diagnosing Malrotation

a. Ultrasound of the abdomen
b. Upper GI series
c. MRI
d. Plain Radiograph

A

b. Upper GI series

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17
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly in the GIT?

a. Pyloric Stenosis
b. Meckel’s Diverticulum
c. Biliary Atresia
d. Duodenal Atresia

A

b. Meckel’s Diverticulum

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18
Q

A 1 year old female came in at the ER with a history of painless rectal bleeding and a currant jelly stool. What is the possible diagnosis?

a. Acute Gastroenteritis
b. Meckel’s Diverticulum
c. Acute Appendicitis
d. Intussusception

A

b. Meckel’s Diverticulum

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19
Q

What is the most sensitive study to diagnose the above patient?

a. Upper GI Series
b. Radionucleic Scan
c. Endoscopy
d. Colonoscopy

A

b. Radionucleic Scan

20
Q

Which is not an enhancing agent for Radionucleic Scan?

a. Cimetidine
b. Ranitidine
c. Glucagon
d. Glycerin

A

d. Glycerin

21
Q

Which is not a factor that influence gastric pressure volume dynamics?

a. Obesity
b. Straining
c. Decreased Movement
d. Hiatal Hernia

A

c. Decreased Movement

22
Q

What is the hallmark clinical manifestation in diagnosing Duodenal Atresia?

a. Billous vomitus with abdominal distention
b. Billous vomitus without abdominal distention
c. Non-Billous vomitus with abdominal distention
d. Non-Billous vomitus without abdominal distention

A

b. Billous vomitus without abdominal distention

23
Q

Which is not a correct association?

a. Pyloric Stenosis-olive shaped
b. Intussusception-sausage shaped
c. Malrotation-shoulder sign
d. Duodenal Atresia- double bubble sign

A

c. Malrotation-shoulder sign

24
Q

Which is not part of the triple therapy for Peptic Ulcer Disease treatment?

a. Proton pump Inhibiter
b. Amoxicillin
c. Cefuroxime
d. Metronidazole

A

c. Cefuroxime

25
Q

Where is the usual location of the gastric ulcers in the stomach?

a. Greater curvature of the stomach
b. Lesser curvature of the stomach
c. Crura
d. Antrum

A

b. Lesser curvature of the stomach

26
Q

Which is the correct World Health Organization (WHO) oral rehydration solution composition?

a. 95 mEq of sodium, 54 mEq of chloride, 20 mEq of potassium, and 75 mmol of glucose per liter, with total osmolarity of 250 mOsm/L
b. 75 mEq of sodium, 64 mEq of chloride, 20 mEq of potassium, and 75 mmol of glucose per liter, with total osmolarity of 245 mOsm/L
c. 75 mEq of sodium, 64 mEq of chloride, 20 mEq of potassium, and 85 mmol of glucose per liter, with total osmolarity of 250 mOsm/L
d. 95 mEq of sodium, 54 mEq of chloride, 10 mEq of potassium, and 85 mmol of glucose per liter, with total osmolarity of 300 mOsm/L

A

b. 75 mEq of sodium, 64 mEq of chloride, 20 mEq of potassium, and 75 mmol of glucose per liter, with total osmolarity of 245 mOsm/L

27
Q

Miguel a 4 year old male, with a body weight of 19kgs; came in at the ER with a Tachycardic Heart Rate, Physical Examination shows to be irritable, slightly sunken eyeballs, dry lips, and noted to be thirsty. What is the Dehydration status of the patient?

a. No Dehydration
b. Mild Dehydration
c. Moderate Dehydration
d. Severe Dehydration

A

b. Mild Dehydration

28
Q

In the patient above, What is the total fluid requirement for 24 hours?
a. 2,100 ml
b. 2020 ml
c. 1870 ml
d. 1590 ml

A

b. 2020 ml

29
Q

How will you rehydrate patient above?

a. ORS as volume per volume replacement
b. ORS 50-100ml/kg body weight in 3-4 hours
c. Lactated Ringers in 20ml/kg body weight
d. Normal Saline in 20ml/kg body weight

A

b. ORS 50-100ml/kg body weight in 3-4 hours

30
Q

In Acute Appendicitis, Which is not an Uncomplicated patient?
a. pain ≤48 hours
b. ultrasonographic or CT documentation of a nonruptured appendix
c. appendiceal diameter ≤1.1cm without phlegmon, abscess, or fecaltih
d. Fever of < 24 hours

A

d. Fever of < 24 hours

31
Q

Which is NOT part in the criteria in diagnosing children with Acute Pancreatitis?

A. Abdominal pain
B. Billous Vomitus
C. Serum amylase and/ or lipase activity of at least 3 times greater than the upper limit of normal
D. Imaging findings characteristic with acute pancreatitis

A

B. Billous Vomitus

32
Q

Which is a characteristic of a patient with Biliary Atresia?

A. Square cord sign on ultrasound
B. Enlarged liver on Physical Examination
C. Associated with Intussusception
D. Can occur in the same family

A

A. Square cord sign on ultrasound

33
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of Idiopathic Neonatal Hepatitis?

A. Pigmented stool
B. Bile fluid on duodenal intubation
C. Dark-colored urine
D. Jaundiced patient

A

A. Pigmented stool

34
Q

Which is NOT TRUE about Kasai Procedure?

A. Management option of patients with Biliary Atresia and Idiopathic Neonatal Hepatitis
B. Hepatoportoenterostomy
C. Success rate is higher if done before 8 weeks old
D. Transection of the porta hepatis with anastomosis of bowel to the proximal surface of the transection might allow bile drainage

A

A. Management option of patients with Biliary Atresia and Idiopathic Neonatal Hepatitis

35
Q

Which is NOT a route if transmission of Hepatitis B virus?

A. Parenteral
B. Fecal-oral
C. Sexual
D. Perineal

A

B. Fecal-oral

36
Q

What is the infectious stage of the patients with Hepatitis A infection?
A. 1 week before and 7 days after the onset of jaundice
B. 1 week before and 7 days after the onset of abdominal pain
C. 2 weeks before and 7 days after the onset of jaundice
D. 2 weeks before and 7 days after the onset of abdominal pain

A

C. 2 weeks before and 7 days after the onset of jaundice

37
Q

Miko, is a 15 year old male, with a history of jaundice. Blood test for Hepatitis panel shows the following: Anti-HBs (+), HBsAg (-), Anti-HBc IgG (+), Anti-HBc IgM (-). Please interpret.

A. Chronic Infection with Hepatitis A
B. Past Infection with Hepatitis B
C. Active Infection with Hepatitis B
D. Vaccine response with Hepatitis A

A

B. Past Infection with Hepatitis B

38
Q

Which is NOT TRUE about Wilson Disease?

A. Hepatolenticular degeneration
B. Autosomal dominant disorder
C. Associated with degenerative changes in the brain, liver disease, and Kayser- Fleischer rings in the cornea
D. Progressive and potentially fatal if untreated

A

B. Autosomal dominant disorder

39
Q

Stella is a 25 year old mother with HBsAg negative on laboratory exam. She gave birth to a well term, male neonate with a birthweight of 3.1 kg, this morning at around 5:15 am via NSD. When is the 1st dose of Hepatitis B vaccine be given to the newborn?

A. At birth
B. 5 days old
C. 2 weeks old
D. 4 weeks old

A

A. At birth

40
Q

Which is NOT true of Hepatitis C virus?

A. Double-stranded DNA virus
B. Flaviviridae family
C. 6 major genotypes
D. No available disease for the disease

A

A. Double-stranded DNA virus

41
Q

Which extraintestinal organ is NOT involved in patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease?

A. Joint
B. Skin
C. Eye
D. Kidney

A

D. Kidney

42
Q

What is the Zinc oxide requirement for patients with Acute Gastroenteritis?

A. 20 mg/kg in 14 days
B. 20 mg/kg in 7 days
C. 10 mg/kg in 10 days
D. 10 mg/kg in 14 days

A

A. 20 mg/kg in 14 days

43
Q

What is the pH of oxyntic cells of the stomach?

A. pH of 0.3
B. pH of 0.8
C. pH of 1
D. pH of 1.3

A

B. pH of 0.8

44
Q

Which is TRUE of H. pylori infection?

A. Gram-positive, S-shaped rod
B. produces gastrin
C. Can beseen in stool exam
D. Mode of transmission is oral to oral

A

D. Mode of transmission is oral to oral

45
Q

Where is the McBurney’s located?

A. Junction of the lateral and middle fourths of the line joining the left anterior- superior iliac spine and the umbilicus
B. Junction of the lateral and middle thirds of the line joining the right anterior- superior iliac spine and the umbilicus
C. Junction of the lateral and middle thirds of the line joining the left posterior-superior iliac spine and the umbilicus
D. Junction of the middle thirds of the line joining the right posterior iliac spine and the umbilicus

A

B. Junction of the lateral and middle thirds of the line joining the right anterior- superior iliac spine and the umbilicus

46
Q

Vincent 5 year old child, was brought by her mother for consult because of difficulty of defecation. According to the mother he noticed of painful or hard bowel movements at least once per week for almost 2 months already, with stools that is hard, lumpy and in large diameter and defecates only once per week. Based on the Rome IV diagnostic criteria, Vincent qualifies for Functional Constipation. What necessary treatment measures must you do for the patient?

a. Fecal impaction, change of diet regimen and anticipate relapse of constipation
b. Fecal impaction, advise increased fluid intake, change of diet regimen
c. Give rectal suppositories, advise increased oral fluid intake and maintain on laxatives d. Give Lactulose, advise a fiber rich diet

A

a. Fecal impaction, change of diet regimen and anticipate relapse of constipation

47
Q

Using the IMCI algorithm for managing patients with diarrhea, those diagnosed for Acute gastroenteritis with some dehydration will be given with:

a. Oral rehydrating rehydrating solution at 10 ml/kg every hour for 2 hours
b. Oral rehydrating solution at 20 ml/kg every hour for 4 hours
c. Oral rehydrating solution at 10ml/kg every hour for 4 hours
d. Oral rehydrating solution at 20 ml/kg every hour for 2 hours

A

b. Oral rehydrating solution at 20 ml/kg every hour for 4 hours

PEDIA (3 decks)

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