fractures Flashcards

1
Q

what is primary bone healing?

A

-when there is a minimal fracture gap (less than 1m) and the bone simply bridges the gap with new bone from osteoblasts.

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2
Q

describe secondary bone healing

A
  • fracture occurs
  • haematoma occurs with inflammation from damaged tissues
  • macrophages and osteoclasts remove debris and resorb bone ends
  • granulation tissue forms from fibroblasts and new blood vessels
  • chondroblasts form cartilage (SOFT CALLUS)
  • osteoblasts lay down bone matrix (collagen type 1) ENCHONDRIAL OSSIFICATION
  • calcium mineralization produces immature woven bone (HARD CALLUS)
  • remodelling occurs with organization along lines of stress into lamellar bone
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3
Q

what are 5 common fracture patterns?

A
  • transverse
  • oblique
  • spiral
  • comminuted
  • segmental
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4
Q

what may cause an oblique fracture ?

A
  • shearing force

e. g. fall from height or deceleration

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5
Q

how may an oblique fracture present?

A
  • may shorten or angulate the bone

- oblique fracture (parallel)

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6
Q

what is the treatment for an oblique fracture?

A

inter fragmentary screw

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7
Q

what causes a transverse fracture?

A

-occur with pure bending force where the cortex on one side fails in compression and the cortex on the other side in tension

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8
Q

what causes a spiral fracture?

A

-torsional forces

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9
Q

what causes a comminuted fracture?

A
  • high energy injury or poor bone quality
  • may be substantial soft tissue swelling and periosteal damage with reduced blood supply to the fracture site which may impair healing
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10
Q

what does a comminuted fracture look like?

A

-fractures with 3 or more fragments

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11
Q

what is the treatment for a comminuted fracture?

A

-stabilized in surgery

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12
Q

what is the treatment for a segmental fracture?

A

-stabilization with long rods or plates

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13
Q

what is a segmental fracture?

A

-bone fractured in two separate places

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14
Q

what is management for undisplaced, minimally displaced and minimally angulated fractures which are considered stable?

A
  • treated non operatively

- period of splintage and immobilization

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15
Q

how are displaced and angulated fractures treated?

A

closed reduction and cast applications with serial Xrays

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16
Q

what is the treatment for unstable injuries?

A

may need surgical stabilisation

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17
Q

what is the treatment for unstable extra articular diaphyseal fractures?

A

ORIF (open reduction and internal fixation)

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18
Q

what patients are more likely to be treated non operatively?

A

elderly with co morbidities, osteopersosis and dementia

-as they are at higher risk of complications during surgery, failure of fixation and failure to rehabilitate satisfactorily

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19
Q

what is the main late systemic complication of fractures?

A

pulmonary embolism (tends to occur several days to weeks after injury)

20
Q

what are some early local complications of fractures?

A
  • compartment syndrome
  • vascular injury with ischaemia
  • nerve compression injury
  • skin necrosis
21
Q

what are some early systemic complications of fractures?

A
  • hypovolaemia
  • fat embolism
  • shock
  • ARDS
  • acute renal failure
  • systemic inflammatory response syndrome
  • multi organ dysfunction syndrome
  • death!
22
Q

what are some late local complications?

A
  • stiffness
  • loss of function
  • chronic regional pain syndrome
  • infection
  • non union
  • mal union
  • Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture
  • post traumatic OA
  • DVT
23
Q

what is neuraprexia?

A
  • mildest form of nerve injury
  • when the nerve has a temporary conduction defect from compression or stretch and resolves over time with full recovery (28 days)
24
Q

what is axonotmesis?

A
  • more severe than neuropraxia
  • nerve injury sustained from compression or stretch in higher degree of force
  • recovery is variable and full power sensation may not be achieved
25
Q

what is neurotmesis?

A
  • most severe type of nerve injury
  • complete transaction of nerve
  • no recovery will occur unless there is surgical repair
26
Q

what is Colles fracture?

A

-distal radius fracture

27
Q

what nerve injury may a Colles fracture lead to?

A

-acute median nerve compression/ carpal tunnel syndrome

COLLES FRACTURE= fracture of distal radius

28
Q

what nerve may anterior dislocation of the shoulder cause?

A

-axillary nerve palsy

29
Q

what nerve may be injured in a humeral shaft fracture?

A

radial nerve

30
Q

what nerve may be injured in a supracondylar fracture of the elbow (fracture to humorous at its narrowest point just above elbow)?

A

-median nerve (usually anterior interosseous branch)

31
Q

what nerve may be injured in a posterior dislocation of the hip?

A

-sciatic nerve

32
Q

what artery risks getting injured in an elbow injury?

A

brachial

33
Q

what is the management for dislocations?

A

-closed reductions

however the longer you leave it the more likely you will need to do an open reduction

34
Q

how are ligament ruptures graded?

A
Grade 1 (sprain)
Grade 2 (partial tear)
Grade 3 (complete tear)
35
Q

what is the treatment for elderly patients with osteoporosis osteopereotic ‘wedge’ insufficiency fractures?

A

-usually do not require anything other than symptomatic treatment

36
Q

what do all high energy thoracolumbar fractures require?

A

-neurological assessment and full trauma evaluation

37
Q

what is the treatment for unstable thoracolumbar spinal fractures?

A

-operative stabilisation

38
Q

what is the treatment for stable thoracic spinal injuries?

A

stable= without substantial displacement or collapse

treatment- brace to limit flexion and prevent kyphosis

39
Q

what are indications for surgery in thoracolumbar spinal fractures?

A
  • the presence of neurological deficit especially if progressive or very unstable injury
  • unstable injury pattern with substantial loss of vertebral height, displacement or involvement of the posterior ligamentous structures
40
Q

what is spinal shock?

A

A physiologic response to injury with complete loss of:

  • sensation
  • motor function
  • loss of reflexes below the level of injury

usually resolves in 24 hours with the return of reflexes and the severity of spinal cord injury may not be determined until after spinal shock has resolved

BULBOCAVERNOUS REFLEX ABSENT (contraction of anal sphincter with either squeeze of glans penis, tapping the mons pubis or pulling on a urethral catheter)

41
Q

what can cause neurogenic shock?

A
  • it occurs secondary to temporary shutdown of sympathetic outflow from the cord from T1 to L2 due to injury in the cervical or upper thoracic cord
  • results from loss of sympathetic tone to heart and vasculature

occurs exclusively in patients with spinal cord injuries!!

42
Q

True or False

Priapism may present with neurogenic shock

A

True

-as sympathetic outflow not working to unopposed to parasympathetic flow to the penis

43
Q

what is used to treat neurogenic shock?

A

IV fluid therapy

44
Q

how may spinal cord injuries be classed?

A

-complete or incomplete spinal cord injury

45
Q

what is central cord syndrome?

A
  • incomplete spinal injury
  • most common injury pattern
  • usually occurs due hyperextension injury in cervical spine with osteoarthritis
  • often there is no associated fracture or dislocstion

-paralysis of the arms more than legs occurs!!

46
Q

what is anterior cord syndrome?

A
  • an incomplete cord injury

- loss of movement, pain and temperature