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CLC > FM 3-98 Chapter Three > Flashcards

FM 3-98 Chapter Three Flashcards

1
Q

*

Define Mission Command

A

The Army’s approach to Command and Control that prioritizes subordinate decision making and decentralized execution appropriate to to the situation

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2
Q

Principles of Mission Command

A

Competence
Mutual Trust
Shared Understanding
Commander’s Intent
Mission Orders
Disciplined Initiative
Risk acceptance

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3
Q

Define Command and Control

A

The exercise of authroity and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission

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4
Q

What is the Army’s framework for organizing and putting command and control into action

A

The Operations Process

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5
Q

What are the major command and control activities

A

Planning, prepearing, executing, and continuosly assessing

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6
Q

Who is the central figure in the operations process

A

The Commander

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7
Q

What are the six primary tasks of the Commander

A

Understand, Visualize, Describe, Direct, Lead, and Assess

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8
Q

What is the Commander’s Visualization

A

The mental process of developing situational understanding, determining a desired end state, and envisioning an operational appraoch by which the force will achieve that end state

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9
Q

How do Commander’s express their visualization

A

Commander’s intent, planning guidance, CCIR, EEFI, CRG/CSG

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10
Q

What is Commander’s Intent

A

A clear andd concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired military end state that supports mission command and provides focus to the staff

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11
Q

How does Commander’s Intent assist subordinate and supporting commanders

A

By allowing them to achieve CDRs desired results without further orders, when the operation does not unfold as planned

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12
Q

What 3 things do CDRs develop and personalize for their intent statement

A

Expanded purpose, key tasks, end state

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13
Q

What are key tasks

A

Those significant activites the force must perform as a whole to achieve the desired end state

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14
Q

Define the End State

A

A set of desired future conditions the commander wants to exist when the operation concludes

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15
Q

What are CCIR

A

FFIR and PIR

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16
Q

Define CCIR

A

Specific information identified by the commander as being essential to facilitiate timely decision making

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17
Q

Define PIR

A

An intelligence requirement that the commander and staff need to understand teh threat and other aspects of the operational environment

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18
Q

PIRs identify information about what considerations the CDR sees as most important

A

Enemy, Terrain, Weather, and Civil consideration

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19
Q

LTIOV is the primary plannning factor when

A

Determinging the reconaissance tempo for information colection operations and will dictate the level of detail to be collected and the stealth required

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20
Q

Define FFIR

A

Information the commander and staff need to understand the status of friendly forces and supporting capabilities

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21
Q

Define EEFI

A

A critical aspect ofa. friendly operation, that if known by a threat would subsequently compromise, lead to failure, or limit success of the opartion and therefor should be protected from enemy detection

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22
Q

Are EEFI CCIR

A

No, but they have the same priority

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23
Q

A CCIR is these 5 things

A
  1. Specified by a specific commander for a specific operation
  2. Applicable only to the commander who specifies it (or their subordinates executing R+S tasks to support the CDR)
  3. Situation dependent, directly linked to a current mission or a decision that will create a new mission, branch, or sequel to the current mission
  4. Time-sensitive
  5. A design and planning requirement
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24
Q

What does clear R+S guidane enable

A

Freedom of action to develop the situation and adequate direction to ensure their organic Cavalry organizations can accomplish R+S objectives within the required timeframe

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25
Q

CDRs R+S is nested with higher commander’s intent - T/F

A

True

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26
Q

What does CRG explain

A

Focus, reconnaissance tempo, and guidelines for engagement

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27
Q

Where can CRG be found

A

In Annex L, Paragraph 3

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28
Q

When does initial reconnaissance and security guidance get published

A

WARNORD 2

29
Q

Reconnaissance focus has four categories

A

Weather, Enemy/Threat, Terrain, and Civil

30
Q

What is the purpose of Reconnaissance Focus

A

To narrow the scope of tasks in order to get teh most important information to develop the situation for future operations

31
Q

What is the Recon Objective

A

The most important result desired from that specific reconnaissance effort

32
Q

How is a reconnaissance objective chosen

A

Based on PIRs which directly support the end state as defined in the commander’s intent

33
Q

How does a reconnaissance objective guide operations

A

When a reconnaissance unit does not have time to accomplish all tasks with a specific reconnaissance form, it uses the reconnaissance objective to guide it in setting priorities

34
Q

What is reconnaissance tempo

A

The level of detail and level of aggressiveness required to accomplish reconnaissance operations

35
Q

Rapid and Deliberate Focus on

A

The level of detail

36
Q

What does sealthy and forceful describe

A

Level of aggressiveness

37
Q

What do commanders use to assist in determinig reconnaissance tempo

h

A

METTC-I

38
Q

In a rapid reconnaissance how many tasks do CDRs assign

A

The minimum number to accomplish the mission

39
Q

What is the limitation of rapid reconnaissance

A

A high risk to force due to reduced specificy and less detailed information about the operation environment

40
Q

How many tasks must be accomplished in a deliberate reconnaissance

A

All of them

41
Q

What are engagement criterea

A

Protocals taht specify those circumstances for initiating engagement with an enemy force

42
Q

What are the two variations of Engagement Criterea

A

Restrictive or Permisive

43
Q

How does the CDR decide on engagement criterea

A

Through METTC-I

44
Q

Define bypass criterea

A

Measures establsihed by higher echelon hjeadquarters that specify the codnitions and size under which enemy units and contact may be avoided

45
Q

What are disengagement criterea

A

Protocals that specify those circumstances where a friendly forces must break contact with direct and indirect fire to prevent decisive engagement

46
Q

What is decisively engaged

A

A fully committed force or unit that cannot maneuver or extricate itself

47
Q

What is security focus

A

What the Cavalry organization is to protect and why

48
Q

What are the four categories of CSG focus

A

Threat, terrain, civil, and friendly

49
Q

What does security focus allow commanders to determine

A

Specific tasks, their prirority, and their relation to the intent and end state

50
Q

What is the Security Objective

A

The most important result desired from the specific security effort

51
Q

What is the importance of articulating the duration of security operations

A

Method of establishing OPs, battle positions, length of UAS rotation and required logistical and communications support, and depth as time is needed to deploy propertly

52
Q

Two observation post styles

A

Short or Long duration

53
Q

Does the BCT and security force still need a plan to maintain contact with bypassed elements

A

Yes

54
Q

What are disengagement criterea often tied to

A

Planned transitions

55
Q

What are the Opeartional Variable

A

Political
Military
Economic
Social
Information
Infrastructure
Physical Envirionment
Time

56
Q

Mission Variables are

A

Mission
Enemy
Terrain and Weather
Troops and Support Available
Time Available
Civil Considerations

57
Q

What is planning

A

The art and science of understanding a situation, envisioning a desired future, and determining effective ways to bring that future about

58
Q

What is the MDMP

A

An iterative planning methodlogy to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce an operation plan or order

59
Q

What are the 5 Steps of RDSP

A
  1. Compare the current situation to the order
  2. Make the determination that a decision is required and determine the type
  3. Develop a course of action
  4. Refine and validate the course of action
  5. Issue and implement the order
60
Q

What are indicators

A

In intelligence usage, items of information that reflects the intention or capability of an enemy and/or adversary to adopt or reject a course of action

61
Q

What do SIRs facilitiate

A

Tasking by matching requirements to asset capabilitiy

62
Q

What are indicators

From FIgure 3-5

A

Positive or negative evidence of threat activity or any characteristic of the AO that points toward threat vulnerabilities, the adoption or rejection by the threat of a particualr activity, or that which may influence the friendly commander’s secltion of a COA

63
Q

What is a decision point

A

A point in space and the latest time when the commander or staff anticipates making a key deision concenring a specific course of action

64
Q

A Decision Support Template is

A

A combined intelligence and operations graphic based on teh results of war-gaming that depicts decision points, timelines associated with mvoemnt of forces and the flow of the operation, and other key items of information required to execute a specifci friendly course of action

65
Q

What is a Decision Support Matrix

A

A written record of a war-gamed course of action that describes decision points and assocaited actions at those decision points

66
Q

What is Situational Understanding

A

The product of applying analsysi and jdugemtn to relevant information to determine the relationship among the operational and mission variables

67
Q

What is a NAI

A

Named Area of Interest - geospatial area or systems node or link against which information that will satsify a specific information requirement can be collected, usually to capture indications of adversary courses of action

68
Q

What is a TAI

A

Target Area of Interest. The geographical area where HVTs can be acquired and engaged by friendly forces

69
Q
A

CLC (6 decks)

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