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RADI > Final (Shoot Me Now) > Flashcards

Final (Shoot Me Now) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of head injuries that can occur?

A

open and closed

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2
Q

Closed head injuries are also known as what?

A

blunt injuries

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of a head injury?

A 
drowsiness
confusion
irritability
coma
headache
vomiting
seizures
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4
Q

What should we always assume about patients with head injuries?

A

that they have a c-spine injury as well

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5
Q

Where do most spinal cord injuries occur?

A

cervical and lumbar areas

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6
Q

What are the 4 classifications of fractures?

A

Open (compound)
closed
complete
incomplete

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7
Q

What are symptoms of a fracture?

A 
limited movement
pain and swelling
deformity of limb
discoloration of skin
may have symptoms of shock
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8
Q

How should you support a body part if there is a fx or suspected fx?

A

Support both above and below the area of the fx site

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9
Q

Define oblique fx

A

fracture that runs in a straight line but at an angle

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10
Q

define spiral fx

A

twisting force applied causing the fx to rotate around the bone

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11
Q

define comminute fx

A

fx with two or more fracture lines

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12
Q

define butterfly fx

A

a v-shaped triangular fragment

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13
Q

define impacted fx

A

shaft of the bone is forced and imbedded in to the end of the bone

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14
Q

define compression fx

A

vertebral body is collapsed

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15
Q

define blowout fx

A

orbit struck by an object pushing the fatpad behind eyeball causing the bone to break

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16
Q

define stress fx

A

caused by abnormal stress applied to a bone (seen often in runners)

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17
Q

define greenstick fx

A

incomplete fx of the bone seen in pediatric patients

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18
Q

define avulsion fx

A

chip of bone caused by tendon pulling piece of bone away (often seen with dislocations)

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19
Q

How many times should you check medication/drug labels and when?

A

3 times; 1 when the container is removed from shelf, 2 when the drug is drawn from container, 3 when the container is replaced

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20
Q

What do many hospitals require you document when using medication/drugs?

A

the expiration date and lot number

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21
Q

radiolucent contrast is also called?

A

negative contrast

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22
Q

What are characteristics of radiolucent/negative contrast media?

A

x-rays are easily transmitted through it, the areas will appear dark where there is negative contrast, and these elements have a low atomic number

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23
Q

Example of commonly used negative/radiolucent contrast?

A

air

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24
Q

radiopaque contrast is also called?

A

positive contrast

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25
Q

What are characteristics of radiopaque/positive contrast media?

A

x-rays are absorbed, the areas will appear lighter/white where there is positive contrast media, and these elements have high atomic numbers

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26
Q

example(s) of commonly used radiopaque/positive contrast?

A

Barium or iodine based contrasts

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27
Q

The first negative contrast study was done when?

A

in 1918

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28
Q

Which type of contrast is very rarely used alone and is almost always paired with the other type?

A

negative/radiolucent

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29
Q

What are 3 main types of positive/radiopaque contrast media?

A
  1. barium sulfate
  2. oil based iodine
  3. water soluble iodine
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30
Q

What is the atomic symbol for barium sulfate?

A

BaSO4

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31
Q

Oil based iodine contrasts are made from what?

A

fatty acids found in animals and plants

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32
Q

What are the two forms of water soluble iodine contrast media?

A
  1. ionic

2. non-ionic

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33
Q

define osmolality

A

the measurement of the total number of particles in the solution per kilogram of water

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34
Q

Which form of water soluble contrasts give a greater chance of allergic reaction and why?

A

ionic due to having a higher osmolality

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35
Q

define shock

A

failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to oxygenate tissues and remove by-products of metabolism

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36
Q

What is the body’s pathological reaction to illness, trauma, or severe physiological or emotion stress?

A

shock

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37
Q

What are the some potential causes of shock?

A

blood loss, cardiac failure, obstruction of blood flow, or a traumatic experience

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38
Q

What are the onset symptoms of shock?

A 
restlessness
cold, clammy and pale skin
respiration increases
normal blood pressure
anxiety level increase
weakness
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39
Q

What are progressive stage symptoms of shock?

A 
blood pressure falls
respirations are shallow and rapid
tachycardia
chest pain complaint from patient
mental status changes
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40
Q

What are the irreversible stage symptoms of shock?

A

blood pressure remains low
renal and liver failure
release of neuro-toxins

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41
Q

What are the 3 types of shock?

A
  1. hypovolemic
  2. cardiogenic
  3. vasogenic
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42
Q

What is hypovolemic shock?

A

occurs with internal or external hemorrhage, loss of plasma from burns, fluid loss due to excessive vomiting, diarrhea, or medications

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43
Q

What are the symptoms of hypovolemic shock?

A

excessive thirst
skin cold and clammy
cyanosis of the lips and nails

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44
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

caused by failure of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to vital organs

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45
Q

What are symptoms of cardiogenic shock?

A 
chest pain
dizziness and respiratory distress
cyanosis
anxiety
rapid change in level of consciousness
irregular pulse
blood pressure decreases
cool, clammy skin
decrease in urinary output
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46
Q

What is vasogenic shock?

A

occurs when there is pooling of blood in blood vessels resulting in a decrease of blood returning to the heart

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47
Q

What are the 3 types of vasogenic shock?

A
  1. neurogenic
  2. septic
  3. anaphylactic
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48
Q

What is neurogenic shock?

A

when blood pools in peripheral vessels

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49
Q

What can cause neurogenic shock?

A

neurological damage, spinal cord injury, severe pain, adverse affect of medication or anesthesia

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50
Q

What are symptoms of neurogenic shock?

A

hypotension
bradycardia
warm, dry skin
patient is usually unconscious due to head injury

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51
Q

What is septic shock?

A

when the body releases chemicals to fight bacteria and viruses that may lead to shock

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52
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

adverse affect to contrast media

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53
Q

What are symptoms of a mild anaphylactic reaction?

A

swelling
itching
tearing of eyes
(occur within 2 hours of injection)

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54
Q

What are symptoms of moderate anaphylactic reaction?

A 
swelling
itching
tearing of eyes
feeling of warmth
anxiety
difficulty breathing
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55
Q

What are symptoms of severe anaphylactic reaction?

A 
swelling
itching
tearing of eyes
feeling of warmth
anxiety
difficulty breathing
seizures
cardiac arrest
56
Q

Which type of vasogenic shock is the most likely to occur in our area?

A

anaphylactic

57
Q

Which type of vasogenic shock is the least likely to occur in our department?

A

septic

58
Q

define pulmonary embolism

A

an occlusion of one or more pulmonary arteries by a thrombus

59
Q

Pulmonary embolisms result in how many deaths per year?

A

50,000

60
Q

When/where are pulmonary embolisms seen?

A

trauma, pregnancy, surgical procedures, and congestive heart failure

61
Q

What are diabetic emergencies caused by?

A

insufficient production of insulin resulting in abnormal amount of glucose in the blood

62
Q

What are the 4 types of diabetes?

A
  1. type 1 or juvenile
  2. type 2 (over 40 years) gradual onset
  3. diabetes mellitus - produced by other medical condition
  4. gestational diabetes - pregnancy
63
Q

What is hypoglycemia?

A

excessive amount of insulin

64
Q

What are symptoms of mild hypoglycemia?

A

sweating
tachycardia
hunger
irritablity

65
Q

What are symptoms of moderate hypoglycemia?

A 
dizziness
headache
cold and clammy skin
sweating
slurred speech
irrational behavior
66
Q

What are symptoms of severe hypoglycemia?

A

disorientated
difficulty arousing from sleep
seizure
rapid lapse into coma

67
Q

What is hyperglycemia?

A

insufficient insulin and in attempts to compensate for this by excreting glucose with water and electrolytes resulting in excessive urination and dehydration

68
Q

What is ketosis?

A

onsets due to over production in liver by breaking down fatty acids into ketone bodies which can lead to the patient becoming comatose and may die

69
Q

What are symptoms of ketosis?

A 
weakness
sweet smelling breath
drowsiness
headache
blurred vision
nausea
warm, dry skin
tachycardia
70
Q

What is a stroke?

A

caused by occlusion or rupture of the blood supply to the brain resulting in a hemorrhage to the brain

71
Q

What are symptoms of a stroke?

A 
severe headache
numbness
muscle weakness to face or one side of body
eye deviation
confusion
difficult speech
72
Q

What is cardiac arrest?

A

cessation of heart function

73
Q

What is another name for cardiac arrest?

A

myocardial infarction

74
Q

What are symptoms of cardiac arrest?

A 
loss of consciousness 
loss of pulse
loss of blood pressure
dilation of pupils
possible seizure
75
Q

What is respiratory arrest?

A

cessation of breathing

76
Q

What are possible causes of respiratory arrest?

A

upper respiratory tract swelling
CNS failure
choking

77
Q

What are seizures a symptom of?

A

syndrome or disease like fever, epilepsy, or head trauma

78
Q

what are the 2 types of seizures?

A
  1. generalized

2. partial

79
Q

What is a partial seizure?

A

pts hands shake, confused for a few moments, only a slight seizure takes place

80
Q

What are symptoms of a seizure?

A 
jerky body movements
utter sharp cry
muscles become rigid
eyes wide open
may vomit
81
Q

What is syncope?

A

fainting

82
Q

What causes syncope?

A

insufficient blood supply to the brain

83
Q

What are symptoms of syncope?

A 
pallor
feeling dizzy or nauseated
hyperpnea
tachycardia
cold, clammy skin
84
Q

Protective aprons containing 0.5 mm Pb have approximately how many HVL’s?

A

2

85
Q

NCRP #102 minimum lead equivalent for lead aprons?

A

0.5 mm Pb eq.

86
Q

NCRP #102 minimum lead equivalent for lead gloves?

A

0.25 mm Pb eq.

87
Q

A 30 degree tilt of the c-arm will increase the dose to the face and neck region of the person standing next to it by a factor of what?

A

4

88
Q

Reversing a c-arm placing the tube on top can increase the dose to the operators eyes by up to how much?

A

by up to 300 times

89
Q

What is the federal set limit of exposure rates of intensified fluoro units?

A

10 R/min or 2.1 R/min/mA

90
Q

If there is no optional high level fluoro controls, the intensity is not to exceed what?

A

10 R/min

91
Q

With optional high level fluoro control, maximum table top intensity is not to exceed?

A

20 R/min

92
Q

The exposure switch must be of what type?

A

dead man

93
Q

How long must the cord for the exposure switch be on mobile units?

A

6 ft or 180 cm

94
Q

What are the main vital signs (4 sometimes 5)?

A
  1. temperature
  2. pulse
  3. respiration
  4. blood pressure
  5. pain
95
Q

What is the average temperature by mouth for an adult?

A

98.6 F or 37 C

96
Q

What is the average temperature by armpit for an adult?

A

97.6 F or 36.4 C

97
Q

What is the average rectal temperature of an adult?

A

99.6 F or 37.5 C

98
Q

What is the average temperature of an infant (3 months to 3 years)?

A

99 F or 37.2 C

99
Q

What is the average temperature of a child (5 to 13 years)?

A

97.8-98.6 F or 36.7-37 C

100
Q

What are the symptoms of a fever?

A 
increased pulse rate 
increased respiratory rate
flushed dry skin
chills
loss of appetite
101
Q

What is pyrexia?

A

fever, when a body temperature is elevated above normal limits

102
Q

What is hypothermia?

A

when a body temperature is below normal limits (96.8 F)

103
Q

What is the normal pulse rate on an adult?

A

60-90 beats per minute

104
Q

What is the normal pulse rate on a child?

A

90-100 beats per minute

105
Q

What is the normal pulse rate on an infant?

A

120 beats per minute

106
Q

What are the 9 common locations of a pulse?

A
  1. apical (apex of heart)
  2. Radial (radial artery in wrist)
  3. carotid (carotid artery at front of neck)
  4. femoral (femoral artery in groin)
  5. popliteal (back of knee)
  6. temporal (temporal artery in front of ear)
  7. dorsalis pedis (top of foot)
  8. posterior tibial (inside of ankle)
  9. brachial (inside groove above elbow)
107
Q

What is the most common location used for taking the pulse?

A

radial artery

108
Q

define tachycardia

A

abnormally rapid heart beat (over 100 beats per minute)

109
Q

define bradycardia

A

abnormally slow heart beat (under 60 beats per minute)

110
Q

What is the average number of respirations for an adult?

A

15-20 breaths per minute

111
Q

What is the average number of respirations for an infant?

A

30-60 breaths per minute

112
Q

define systolic

A

the amount of blood flow ejected from the left ventricle of the heart

113
Q

define diastolic

A

the amount of resistance the blood meets due to systemic vascular resistance

114
Q

how do you record blood pressure?

A

systolic reading on top, diastolic on bottom

115
Q

Most patients will have an oxygen saturation level of what?

A

95% or higher

116
Q

An oxygen saturation level of 85% or less means what?

A

the tissues are not receiving adequate oxygen

117
Q

define attenuation

A

the reduction in the number of x-ray photons of the primary beam and loss of energy as it passes through matter

118
Q

define binding energy

A

the energy required to remove an orbital electron from its shell

119
Q

Which shell of an atom has the highest binding energy?

A

the k-shell

120
Q

When there is a higher atomic number, what happens to the k-shell binding energy?

A

it is higher

121
Q

atoms found in the soft tissues of the human body have an average k-shell binding energy of what?

A

approximately 0.5 keV

122
Q

k-shell electrons have the _____ total energy and the _____ binding energy

A

lowest total energy, highest binding energy

123
Q

electrons that are further from the nucleus have greater or less energy?

A

greater

124
Q

What are the 3 main interactions between x-rays and matter?

A
  1. compton
  2. photoelectric
  3. coherent

(4. pair production, 5. photodisintegration)

125
Q

What happens in compton interactions?

A

the incident x-ray photon interacts with a loosely bound OUTER shell electeron - removes electron from its shell, photon then proceeds in a different direction as scattered photon

126
Q

Which interaction is our primary source of occupation exposure?

A

Compton scatter (from patient)

127
Q

What happens in photoelectric interactions?

A

the incident x-ray photon interacts with an INNER shell electron, ejects inner shell electron and is completely absorbed by interaction, causes characteristic cascade to fill vacancy of ejected inner shell electron

128
Q

What 3 things must “happen/be present” for a photoelectric interaction to occur?

A
  1. incident photon must have higher energy than binding energy of inner-shell electron
  2. more likely to occur if the x-ray photon energy and electron binding energy are closer to each other
  3. more likely to occur when the electrons are more tightly bound to the nucleus
129
Q

Are photoelectric interactions more likely to occur in soft tissue or bone?

A

bone

130
Q

What happens in coherent interactions?

A

occurs due to the interaction of very low energy x-ray photons and matter, interaction of incident photon and electron causes vibrations and excitement to higher energy state before it returns to normal state

131
Q

What are the two types of coherent interactions?

A
  1. thompson (involves one electron)

2. rayleigh (involves all electrons)

132
Q

Coherent interactions are considered what in diagnostic imaging?

A

insignificant

133
Q

What is pair production?

A

interaction between high energy photons and matter characterized by the conversion of the energy of an x-ray photon into mater in the form of two electrons

134
Q

What does pair production create?

A

a pair of electrons : negatron and positron

135
Q

Does pair production occur in diagnostic imaging?

A

no

136
Q

What is photodisintegration?

A

interaction between x-rays and matter characterized by interactions between the high energy photon and the nucelus

137
Q

Which of the main interactions occurs most in the diagnostic range?

A

Compton interaction

RADI (4 decks)

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