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Final Revision Q's > Final Revision > Flashcards

Final Revision Flashcards

1
Q

When can we consider runways to be separate?

A

Runways are separate landing surfaces
May overlay or cross in a way that if one is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operation on the other. Shall have separate approach procedure based on separate navigation aid.

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2
Q

When do we requier two destination alternates?

A

Destination wx +/-1hr eta below minima expected approach.

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3
Q

What are the planning minima for take of alternate?

A
  • wx at or above applicable minima for expected approach
  • take off alternate requiered when wx prevents return
  • must be within 320nm
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4
Q

How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?

A

1 hour at a time

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5
Q

What is the extra fuel burn for EAI and EAI+WAI?

A

EAI: 1kg/min
WAI+EAI: 2 kg/min
Plus 1kg/min for each in holding

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6
Q

What is the minimum RFF category?

A
  1. May be downgraded by two for dep and dest. Alternate max downgrade 1.
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7
Q

What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?

A
  • record in tech log
  • arrange engineer or pilot inspection with MOC
  • submit ASR
    Easyjet will submit asr to other agencies (CAA etc)
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8
Q

Tell me about the carriage of musical instruments?

A
  • allowed in cabin if they fit in overhead locker
  • small piece of hand luggage (laptop bag/ ladies bad) allowed
  • larger than locker: seat must be purchased
  • center of mass not more than 30cm above seat cushion
  • must be put next to window
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9
Q

A passenger arrives on a stretcher, can we carry him?

A

No

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10
Q

Which seats are restricted?

A

1 ABCD
over wing exits
Last row C and D

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11
Q

What does max recommended altitude on the cruise page mean?

A

Altitude with:

  • 0.3g buffet margin
  • 300fpm climb rate with max climb thrust
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12
Q

What is Econ speed?

A
  • cost index managed speed
  • only valid when all winds entered
  • ensures most economical flight
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13
Q

What is cost index?

A

Ratio of flight time to fuel cost.

0= min fuel
99=min time

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14
Q

When may the autopilot be engaged?

A

100ft or 5 seconds after lift off

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15
Q

What are the autopilot disengagement heights?

A
  • CAT II: 80ft
  • CAT I: 160ft
  • NPA: MDA
  • Circling: MDA-500ft
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16
Q

Starter cycles for APU?

A

3 then wait 60min

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17
Q

Starter cycles for the engines?

A

4 cycles, max 2 minutes
20 sec pause
Then 15 minute cooling period

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18
Q

Max altitude gear?

A

25000ft

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19
Q

Max altitude flaps/ slats?

A

20000ft

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20
Q

When is PTU inhibited?

A

During first engine start

40 seconds during and after opening or closing of cargo doors

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21
Q

When do we not need an alternate?

A
  • less than 6 hours flight time
  • two separate runways
  • weather 2000ft ceiling or circling +500ft and 5 km vis +/- one hour eta
  • fuel 15 min at 1500ft additional fuel
22
Q

When may reduced thrust not be used for takeoff?

A

Runway contaminated

Dispatch with landing gear extended

23
Q

What are the minimum takeoff climb gradients?

A

Second segment: 2.4% gross

Final segment: 1.2% gross

24
Q

When is the use of reverse thrust assumed?

A

Dry: no credit for reverse

Wet or contaminated: Max reverse thrust on the operative engine in case of RTO

25
Q

What are the approach climb gradients?

A

CAT I: 2.1%

CAT II or III: 2.5%

26
Q

What is the landing climb gradient?

A

3.2%

27
Q

Takeoff Minima, What is Required? Stop End RVR U/S, Can We Go?

A
  • Minimum RVR of 125m required for all relevant points.
  • Initial part can be replaced by pilot assessment, 90m visual segment, 6 centreline lights (at 15m spacing).
  • Relevant means where the speed is above 60 knots.
  • If the end RVR meter was out and the runway was long one could shorten the runway length in the LPC to exclude the final third of runway.
28
Q

Landing Minima and Unserviceable RVR’s

A
  • No RVR required for CAT I ILS
  • For CAT II/III touchdown RVR can be temporarily replaced by mid point RVR
  • The touchdown RVR is always controlling. If reported and relevant, the midpoint and stop end RVR are also controlling
29
Q

When is One Allowed to Convert Met Visibility to RVR?

A
  • For landing only
  • When RVR values are not available
  • Not to be used when the RVR required is less than 800m
  • Use table 8.1.3.9.

o HIAL – Day = 1.5 / Night = 2.0

o Other lighting – Day = 1.0 / Night = 1.5

30
Q

Define Approach Climb Gradient

A

The minimum climb gradient for a go around

o Assumes one engine inoperative, TOGA, gear up, CONF 2 or 3.

o 2.1% minimum for a normal approach or 2.5% for a CAT II/III approach

31
Q

Define Landing Climb

A

Climb requirement in landing configuration with all engines operating

o Thrust available 8 seconds after thrust lever movement

o Gear extended

o Conf 3 or Full (landing configuration)

o 3.2% required

32
Q

CAT II/II RVR Requirements

A

CAT I 200’ 550m Identifiable feature
CAT II 100’ 300m 3 lights & lateral element CAT III A 50’ 200m 3 lights
CAT III B None 75m 1 light if DH

33
Q

Do You Need To File an ASR If You Do A Go Around?

A

Yes

34
Q

LVP, Failure at 2000’. Can You Continue? What Must You Have Done Before 1000’?

A

• Can continue, reverting to higher minima providing

o ECAM is complete

o RVR is suitable

o Briefing amended

o Decision made by 1000’

• Can switch from one autopilot to the other before 1000’

35
Q

What are the Calls to the Cabin after a Rejected Takeoff?

A
  • “Attention! Crew at Stations.”

* Crew go their door of responsibility and check outside conditions whilst awaiting further instructions.

36
Q

Do We Carry Children Under Age 14? What are the Requirements?

A
  • 2 weeks to 2 years = infant (must be at least two weeks old to fly)
  • 16 and over = adult
  • Child under 14 cannot fly alone, must be with someone 16 or over
  • Children under 14 can fly in groups, one adult (16 or above) per 10 children
  • Infants use either an extension seatbelt or their own car seat
  • Ages 2 to 3 years can use either the normal aircraft seatbelt or their own car seat
  • Maximum of two infants per adult.
37
Q

When Do We Require Two Destination Alternates?

A
  • If at ETA ± 1hr weather at destination will be below applicable planning minima
  • If no met information is available for the destination.
  • The landing performance requirements cannot be assured at a destination aerodrome due to dependence on a specific wind component or runway state.
38
Q

Planning minima for destination alternate if only non-precision approach is available?

A

NPA MINIMA +
• Visibility + 1000m

• MDA + 200’

39
Q

For Planning to Tanker Fuel, What are the Maximum Landing Weights?

A

Where there is no next sector information, tankering will be based upon structural limitation reduced by one percent (MTOW -1%, MLW -1%).

40
Q

What is Contingency Fuel Carried For?

A

To cover deviations from the planned operating conditions such as different cruise altitude, track, differences in winds or any other unforeseen circumstances

41
Q

Within Which Distance Must a Cruise Alternate Be?

A
  • 380nm (A319)
  • 400nm (A320)
  • 60 minutes flight time based on one engine inoperative cruise speed at standard temperature in still air.
42
Q

When Can We Fly Below CNR and Continue to Destination?

A

Maximum anticipated delay known or an EAT received – the flight may continue to destination or to hold so long as the landing at the destination is assured and it is possible to reach the destination with final reserve fuel remaining.

43
Q

When is a landing considered assured?

A

A landing is “assured” if, in the judgement of the Flight Crew, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities e.g. Cat II/III to Cat I.

44
Q

What Are the RVSM Requirements?

A

Required equipment list in the QRH 8.07.

  • 2 ADR
  • 2 DMC
  • 2 PFD
  • 1 Transponder
  • 1 Autopilot function
  • 1 FCU channel (for altitude target selection and OP CLB/OP DES mode engagement)
  • 1 FWC (for altitude alert function)
  • RVSM checks

o The normal on ground altimeter checks suffice, 20’ between ADR1 and ADR2 and within 25’ of elevation. Maximum of 100’ between ISIS and PFD’s

o Ask for re-clearance if any of the listed equipment fails

o Record altimeter readings if only two ADR’s are working

o Do not overshoot cleared levels by more than 150’

o Check each hour than each PFD altitudes are within tolerance 3.04.34

45
Q

Circling Approach. When Can You Disconnect the Autopilot?

A

At any time

Must be disconnected by MDA - 100’

46
Q

The Dispatcher Informs You That Human Remains are Being Loaded. Can you carry them?

A
  • Only ashes and must be carried in the cabin in a secure container
  • Must be accompanied with death and cremation certificates
47
Q

What is the Minimum Number of Cabin Crew?

A
  • Four (or three in the A319 150 seat configuration)
  • Can operate with three crew is someone goes sick during the day and

o The flight is not departing a crew base

o Authorised by Duty Pilot

o Reduction by one crew only

o Maximum of 50 passengers per cabin crew

  • Captain to final an ASR
  • SCCM or acting SCCM to file a CSR
  • If considered unfit to fly crew member must not fly until checked by a doctor or paramedic
48
Q

What Are the Maximum EGT Figures for Start, MCT & TOGA?

A

TOGA 5 min / 10 min EO 950C
MCT Unlimited 915C
Starting 725C

49
Q

APU Figures?

A 
Max N 107% 
Max EGT 675 C 
Max Start EGT 35,000' 1120C 
Restart and Operation 39,000' 
Battery Start (emerg elec config) 25,000'
50
Q

Taking Off Behind a Heavy, What Separation Should You Allow?

A

Same point: 2
Intersection: 3
A380: Plus one on above figures

51
Q

When Do You Use EAI On for Takeoff?

A

Temperature below 10 o C and visible moisture

If you think it will be required before the one engine out acceleration altitude

52
Q

Above What Speed Will Auto Brake Max on Takeoff Function on a Rejected Takeoff?

A

72kts

Final Revision Q's (1 decks)

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