Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

The name listed on drug labels as active ingredient is the trade name of the drug.

A

False

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2
Q

It is appropriate to cut enteric-coated or SR tablets in half to provide a more accurate dosing of the medication.

A

False

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3
Q

An owner reports an unusual side effect for a drug that the veterinarian prescribed. You should:

A

Contact the FDA and/or drug manufacturer to report the adverse event.

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4
Q

Veterinary Feed Directives (VFDs) are only required for medically important antibiotics added to food and/or water of food animal species that are definitely entering the human food chain.

A

False

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5
Q

The difference between whether a drug is harmful or helpful to the patient relies upon

A

how the drug is used

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6
Q

____________ constitute adverse drug effects that could potentially do significant harm to the patient.

A

warnings

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7
Q

___________ is an artificial sweetener used in some human sugar-free syrups that causes massive insulin release in dogs.

A

xylitol

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8
Q

If a standard injectable form of a drug is given every 12 hours, would the repository form of the same drug be more likely to be given every:

A

2 days

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9
Q

Which liquid formulation of a drug can be safely given intravenously without being shaken before administration?

A

solution

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10
Q

The dose calculated for any particular patient

A

is actually a scientific guess

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11
Q

_____________ consist of active ingredient drug in powdered form mixed with sweetener and flavoring agent.

A

molded tablets

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12
Q

____________ are alcohol-based solutions used for oral or topical application.

A

tintures

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13
Q

____________ are therapeutic agents composed of specially prepared plant or animal parts rather than chemicals synthesized in a laboratory.

A

extracts

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14
Q

_______________ is the period of time between the last dose of a drug and when the animal can be slaughtered for human food or its food products can be sold.

A

withdrawl time

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15
Q

A controlled substance with a schedule III would have less potential for abuse than a schedule II drugs.

A

True

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16
Q

The ________________ legislation gives veterinarians the right to prescribe drugs for extra-label use in veterinary patients.

A

AMDUCA

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17
Q

This type of drug can be legally obtained without a prescription.

A

OTC

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18
Q

Extra-label drug usage in veterinary medicine

A
  • is legally allowed under certain circumstances
  • is using a drug in any manner other than that for which –it received FDA approval
  • will not appear on the drug insert
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19
Q

The ______________ is designed to not allow a tablet to dissolve until it reaches the small intestine.

A

enteric coating

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20
Q

The ___________ system is the most commonly used measuring system today.

A

metric

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21
Q

Cytotoxic drugs can be stored alongside all other drugs in the practice’s pharmacy area.

A

false

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22
Q

Mrs. Smith is on vacation with Fluffy, her dog, in another state. Fluffy runs out of his medication, so Mrs. Smith goes to a local veterinary clinic with the written prescription she picked up from Fluffy’s regular veterinarian on her way out of town. The technician at the local clinic greets Mrs. Smith and immediately fills Fluffy’s prescription without having the veterinarian exam Fluffy, so Mrs. Smith and Fluffy can continue with their vacation.

A

false

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23
Q

Weight by volume percentage solutions

A

are expressed as the number of grams of drug per 100ml liquid

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24
Q

The following drug order means what when written in words – 1gtt OU q4h:

A

1 drop into both eyes every 4 hours

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25
Q

The following drug order means what when written in words – 75mg PO q24h 3d:

A

75 milligrams by mouth every 24 hours for 3 days

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26
Q

All of the following must be included on a written drug prescription except?

A

patient weight

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27
Q

Controlled substances

A

none of these

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28
Q

An emulsion

A

Should be stirred or shaken prior to administering

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29
Q

The dosage of a drug is

A

the mass of drug needed per unit of weight for usage in any animal

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30
Q

Compounded drugs include, but are not limited to

A
  • Combining two or more drugs into the same syringe for injection
  • Emptying capsules into liquid to create a suspension
  • Adding flavoring to a drug solution
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31
Q

A drug order is the same as a prescription.

A

false

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32
Q

The acronym ADR, when used in relation to pharmacology, stands for:

A

adverse drug reaction

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33
Q

A _________________ is any effect other than the intended effect of a drug that occurs within the normal therapeutic range.

A

side effect

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34
Q

____________ is the study of how drugs work.

A

pharmacology

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35
Q

The dose of a drug should be expressed as ________ of drug.

A

mass

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36
Q

Filling prescriptions for patients as indicated by the veterinarian’s prescription is referred to as

A

pharmacy

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37
Q

The agency in the US responsible for regulation of drugs that have the potential for abuse is:

A

DEA

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38
Q

The DEA requires all controlled substance inventory records be maintained and readily available for a minimum of ________.

A

2 years

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39
Q

Drugs in this category are considered “poisonous” to mammalian cells:

A

cytotoxins/cytotoxic

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40
Q

US federal law prohibits prescriptions for _______ controlled substances to have written refills.

A

C-II

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41
Q

All of the following are true regarding proper drug storage except:

A

All drugs can safely be kept at or below 8C (46F)

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42
Q

The abbreviation QID (also q.i.d.) means

A

Four times daily

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43
Q

A drug’s ____________ is the measure of how fast a volume of blood is cleared of the drug.

A

clearance

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44
Q

Drugs given via the _________ route reach peak plasma concentration fastest.

A

intravenous

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45
Q

Capillaries located in the ___________ have fenestrations allowing water and small drug molecules to enter and exit.

A

body and placenta

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46
Q

A drug with good affinity and intrinsic activity is called an agonist.

A

true

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47
Q

The process of breaking down dosage forms to the individual molecules is called dissolution.

A

true

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48
Q

Testing cattle for tuberculosis is an example of _______ drug administration.

A

ID

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49
Q

Your veterinarian instructs you to give an IP injection. Where do you inject the drug?

A

into the abdominal cavity

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50
Q

______________ is the study of how drugs work on the body.

A

pharmacodynamics

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51
Q

The environmental pH at which there are equal numbers of ionized and nonionized drug molecules is called the drug’s ___________.

A

PKA

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52
Q

______________ drug molecules are nonionized.

A

lipophilic

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53
Q

P-glycoprotein (P-gp) is

A

an active transport pump found in some cells

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54
Q

All injectable drugs can be given via all routes; SQ, IM, and IV.

A

false

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55
Q

Many drugs are metabolized by _________ located in the ___________.

A

CYP, liver

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56
Q

Bioavailability is the percentage of drug administered that makes it into systemic circulation. All drugs administered ______ have a bioavailability of 100%.

A

IV

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57
Q

Absorption and distribution must occur for a drug to be effective.

A

true

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58
Q

All of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration except:

A

PO

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59
Q

An _____________ drug has affinity for a receptor but no intrinsic activity when combined with the receptor.

A

antagonist

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60
Q

Fat is a well perfused tissue.

A

false

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61
Q

Ionized drug molecules pass easily through cellular membranes.

A

false

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62
Q

Drug molecules must combine with _____________ located on a cell’s surface or within a cell for the cell to respond.

A

receptors

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63
Q

For aspirin, an acid drug, a shift in the environmental pH in the acidic direction by 1 pH unit results in:

A

100-times increase in ionized side of drug molecule ratio

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64
Q

________________ is the amplification or suppression of pain impulses by neurons in the spinal cord.

A

modulation

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65
Q

_____________________ involves the use of a combination of an opioid drug with a tranquilizer or sedative.

A

neuroleptanalgesia

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66
Q

_______________ is a CNS stimulant that works at the medulla of the brainstem to increase respiration.

A

doxepram

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67
Q

Ketamine is classified as a ____________ controlled substance.

A

C-III

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68
Q

μ-mediated opioid analgesia primarily works by:

A

decreasing release of excitatory neurotransmitters and dampening excitation of post-synaptic sites

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69
Q

Gas anesthetic agents:

A
  • do not produce metabolites potentially toxic to the kidney
  • produce anesthesia in a manner that is poorly understood
  • are administered via the lungs
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70
Q

_______________ was the first alpha 2-agonist drug used in veterinary medicine, and remains widely used in both small and large animals.

A

xylazine

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71
Q

Opioids and opiates are exactly the same substances.

A

false

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72
Q

The use of which NMDA receptor antagonist(s) is thought to prevent spinal cord wind-up?

A

tiletamine

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73
Q

Drugs that reduce the perception of pain without significant loss of other sensations are called ________________.

A

analgesics

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74
Q

The tranquilizer drug __________ produces its effect by enhancing GABA activity.

A

diazepam

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75
Q

Historically, _____________ are drugs that were used to induce anesthesia or provide primary anesthesia in limited situation

A

barbiturates

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76
Q

The reversal drugs for ___________ are yohimbine and tolazoline

A

xylazine

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77
Q

Propofol:

A
  • inhibits the NMDA receptor
  • is an injectable anesthetic agent
  • directly stimulates the GABA-A receptor
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78
Q

__________________ is a mixed agonist/antagonist opioid that is labeled for use as an antitussive in small animals.

A

butorphanol

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79
Q

__________ is an example of a dissociative anesthetic drug.

A

ketamine

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80
Q

One effect of medetomidine administration is bradycardia.

A

true

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81
Q

Tranquilizers and sedative produce a relaxed state via the same mechanism of action.

A

false

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82
Q

Gas anesthetics do not provide analgesia

A

true

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83
Q

The Alpha 2 agonist drugs

A

Are sedatives with some analgesic effects

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84
Q

________is the prototypical opioid drug against which all other opioids tend to be measured

A

morphine

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85
Q

The 4 steps of the pain pathway (in order) are

A

Transduction, transmission, modulation,perception

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86
Q

First-degree AV block

A
  • is a result of slowed rate of depolarization wave conduction through AV node
  • appears as a prolonged PR interval on ECG
  • occurs with the use of Class II antiarrhythmic drugs (propranolol, atenolol, esmolol, metoprolol, carvedilol)
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87
Q

The 4 types of adrenergic receptors with the greatest adrenergic drug roles are:

A

α1, β1, α2, β2

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88
Q

The ____________ nervous system is referred to as the “fight or flight” system.

A

sympathetic

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89
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

prevent angiotensin II and aldosterone formation

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90
Q

The heart consists of a __________-pump system

A

2

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91
Q

PVCs are a type of ventricular arrhythmia.

A

true

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92
Q

Heart valves allow blood flow in a single direction.

A

true

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93
Q

Catecholamines are positive inotropes.

A

true

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94
Q

____________ is a loop diuretic used to promote water loss in patients with CHF.

A

furosemide

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95
Q

___________ is a potassium-sparing diuretic.

A

spironolactone

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96
Q

Cats with cardiac disease are at decreased risk for thrombotic events, such as saddle thrombus.

A

false

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97
Q

Long term use of β blockers results in down regulation of the β1 receptors on cell surface.

A

false

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98
Q

The _______recieves oxygen rich blood from the lungs.

A

pulmonary veins

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99
Q

The ventricular contraction is recorded as the T wave on the ECG

A

false

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100
Q

Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker is used to treat atrial fibrillation

A

true

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101
Q

Arterial vasodilators

A

cause arteriolar smooth muscle relaxation

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102
Q

The pacemaker of the heart

A

Is located in the right atrium

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103
Q

________reduces pulmonary edema formation and is available as a topical cream.

A

Nitroglycerin

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104
Q

Any abnormal electrical activity in the heart is called an________.

A

Arrhythmia

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105
Q

Cardiac cell depolarization

A

Occurs when fast sodium channels open

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106
Q

The time during which a cell cannot depolarize again is called the _____________.

A

absolute refractory period

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107
Q

Congestive heart failure occurs when the heart beats too slowly.

A

false

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108
Q

Which of the following cardiac drugs is also a poison found in nature?

A

digoxin

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109
Q

_____________ therapy is indicated in animals that are transiently hypoxic

A

Oxygen

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110
Q

Mucolytic agents

A

decrease mucus viscosity

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111
Q

Horses with recurrent airway obstruction may be treated with aerosolized ____________ as part of their treatment. Does have immunosuppressing effect

A

corticosteroids

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112
Q

Nonproductive coughing

A

none of these

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113
Q

Antimicrobial use in food animals

A

none of these

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114
Q

Bronchoconstriction mechanisms include all of the following except

A

stimulation of bronchiolar β2 receptors

115
Q

This class of bronchodilators includes theophylline and aminophylline

A

Methylxanthines

116
Q

Corticosteroids are contraindicated for use in the treatment of feline asthma syndrome.

A

false

117
Q

The cough center is a cluster of neurons located in the cerebellum of the brain.

A

false

118
Q

Centrally acting antitussives

A

suppress cough center neurons

119
Q

Albuterol is a bronchodilator administered via inhalation using_______

A

Metered dose inhalers

120
Q

Chronic use of rescue inhalers leads to Beta receptor upregulation

A

false

121
Q

Locally acting antitussives are commonly utilized in veterinary medicine

A

false

122
Q

Decongestants

A

are not typically used in veterinary medicine

123
Q

Normal protective mechanisms of the respiratory tract

A
  • include sneezing and coughing
  • can contribute to clinical disease
  • prevent foreign material from entering
124
Q

These cells with cilia line the larger bronchioles in the respiratory tree

A

columnar epithelial

125
Q

Most ________________ episodes are the result of benign allergic reactions to environmental stimuli, though clients often mistake them for life threatening

A

reverse sneezing

126
Q

This narcotic is the only FDA-approved veterinary antitussive.

A

butorphanol

127
Q

Beta-receptor agonists have what effect on the respiratory tree?

A

cause bronchodilation

128
Q

Cats may go into spontaneous diabetic remission during the course of treatment.

A

true

129
Q

Endocrine systems are regulated by a _________________ mechanism.

A

negative feedback

130
Q

___________ serves as a storage pool for the more active triiodothyronine.

A

T4

131
Q

This recombinant human insulin has been used for many years to treat diabetes mellitus in cats.

A

insulin glargine

132
Q

The usage of reproductive drugs in a specific, timed order is referred to as a __________________________protocol.

A

timed artificial insemination

133
Q

________________ is the oral drug of choice for treating hyperthyroidism.

A

methimazole

134
Q

Which species is more likely to exhibit type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

canine

135
Q

All of the following statements regarding levothyroxine are true except

A

none of these

136
Q

Progesterone is produced by the ovary.

A

false

137
Q

Which of the following statements about insulin is incorrect?

A

none of these

138
Q

Administration of corticosteroids to a pregnant mare or cow may result in _____

A

Abortion

139
Q

Thyroid extracts are commonly used to treat hypothyroid veterinary patients

A

false

140
Q

Dogs are more prone to develop hypothyroidism

A

true

141
Q

All of the following are clinical signs of hypothyroidism except

A

Tachycardia

142
Q

During the luteal phase of the estrous cycle

A

None of these

143
Q

Prostaglandins can only function in the follicular phase

A

false

144
Q

_____________ produces forceful uterine contractions and causes milk letdown.

A

oxytocin

145
Q

Short acting insulin

A
  • can be given as a continuous IV infusion
  • is used in the treatment of DKA
  • is regular (crystalline) insulin
146
Q

All of the following statements regarding insulin for injection are true except

A

it is measured in mg/mL

147
Q

The pancreatic endocrine hormone used for therapeutic purposes is

A

insulin

148
Q

The opioid antidiarrheal drugs.

A
  • Increase segmental contractions in the small intestines
  • Include Loperamide and Diphenoxylate
  • Decrease perigastric contractions
149
Q

The antiulcer drug_______acts as a “gastric Band-aid”.

A

Sucralfate

150
Q

The syndrome occurs when the pancreas fails to produce sufficient amounts of several digestive enzymes

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

151
Q

This type of contraction propels food along the GI tract.

A

Peristaltic

152
Q

Digestion is a conscious process controlled by the autonomic nervous system.

A

false

153
Q

Maripotant is an NK-1 agonist that has always been labeled for injection in dogs and cats in the US

A

false

154
Q

Apomorphine is an emetic drug used to induce vomiting in dogs, cats, and rabbits

A

false

155
Q

________are drug molecules that cause other molecules to adhere to their outer surfaces and decrease the likelihood of those compounds being absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract.

A

Adsorbents

156
Q

Secretory diarrhea is caused by _________ produced by intestinal bacteria.

A

Enterotoxins

157
Q

Metoclopramide is considered a ____________ drug.

A

Prokinetic

158
Q

A dog presents on emergency after ingesting an entire pan of double chocolate brownies approximately 30-45 minutes ago. You should inform the client of the cost of treatment, obtain consent, and induce vomiting.

A

true

159
Q

H+ is actively secreted into the gastric lumen by the

A

parietal cell

160
Q

Sulfasalazine is an antibiotic chemically linked to a salicylate molecule, which is the component that acts as an antidiarrheal drug.

A

True

161
Q

H2 blockers

A
  • include famotidine, ranitidine, cimetidine
  • attach to and block histamine receptors on parietal cells
  • must circulate in the blood
162
Q

Induction of emesis via 3% hydrogen peroxide

A

should be limited to 1.1-2.2 mL/kg (limit 45mL)

163
Q

_____________ can have neurologic side effects and is prohibited from use in food animals.

A

metronidazole

164
Q

This drug binds to the luminal surface of parietal cells and inhibits the pump that normally transports H+ into the stomach lumen.

A

omeprazole

165
Q

____________ are particularly susceptible to colic or impaction problems due to their expanded colon and cecum.

A

Horses

166
Q

Phenobarbital controls seizures by

A

decreasing the likelihood of spontaneous depolarization in brain cells

167
Q

Therapeutic monitoring is the only way to be sure a phenobarbital dosage regimen is adequate

A

true

168
Q

This anticonvulsant must be given every 8 hours, and is available in oral and injectable forms.

A

levetiracetum

169
Q

Prolonged seizure activity can result in ___________ from the inability to expand the chest because of prolonged thoracic muscle contraction.

A

hypoxia

170
Q

The antipsychotic drugs used in veterinary medicine

A

are not recommended for use in suppressing aggressive behavior problems

171
Q

Which statement is most accurate regarding phenobarbital?

A

phenobarbital is biotransformed by MFOs found in the liver

172
Q

This drug class controls seizures by penetrating the blood-brain barrier and enhancing the inhibitory effect of GABA.

A

benzodiazepines

173
Q

Seizures can be ___________ or _____________ depending whether one area of the brain or the entire brain is affected.

A

focal; generalized

174
Q

Pathologic states that secondarily affect the brain, causing seizures, include:

A
  • canine distemper
  • eclampsia
  • hypoxia
  • hypoglycemia
175
Q

MAOIs and SSRIs should never be used in combination due to the increased risk of _____________.

A

serotonin syndrome

176
Q

During __________ seizures the patient generally does not lose consciousness.

A

focal

177
Q

______________, a sulfonamide, has an unknown mechanism of action as an anticonvulsant.

A

zonisamide

178
Q

The _____________ is the part of the brain involved with emotion.

A

limbic system

179
Q

_____________ is an antipsychotic drug used in veterinary medicine.

A

acepromazine

180
Q

This drug’s FDA-approved indication is for treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorders in dogs.

A

clomipramine

181
Q

This antidepressant medication is also marketed for use in treating canine cognitive dysfunction.

A

Anipryl

182
Q

Behavior-modifying drugs general mechanisms of action include all except:

A

none of these

183
Q

Seizure activity in horses is always treated with oral anticonvulsant drugs.

A

false

184
Q

Gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, is primarily used to control neuropathic pain, not seizures.

A

true

185
Q

Possible side effects of phenobarbital include all of the following except

A

anorexia

186
Q

______ is the seizure activity itself.

A

ictus

187
Q

Diazepam

A

all of these

188
Q

Which of the following statements about metronidazole are true?

A
  • the exact mechanism of action is not known
  • is only effective against anaerobic bacteria
  • may produce transient neurologic side effects
189
Q

This macrolide may cause death if inadvertantly injected into some species and has no antidote.

A

Tilmicosin

190
Q

_________As a family have the ability to accumulate within mammalian cells and reach organisms that hide within mammalian cells.

A

Tetracycline

191
Q

The mechanism of action of this class of antibiotics is by interfering with the production of bacterial and nucleic acids.

A

Fluroquinolones

192
Q

________is confined to topical antibiotic preparations or ocular preparations due to its potential to produce nephrotoxicity.

A

Bacitracin

193
Q

Of the azole antifungal agents, _________ is the prototype imidazole

A

Ketoconazole

194
Q

Orally administered quinolines are absorbed almsot_________from the intestinal tract of dogs and cats.

A

100%

195
Q

Empiric therapy

A

none of these

196
Q

Bacteriostatic drugs

A
  • inhibit bacterial growth/replication
  • are considered time dependent to be most effective in eliminating bacterial infections
  • include oxytetracycline and tylosin
197
Q

______________ were the first antimicrobials used on a widespread basis in veterinary and human medicine.

A

sulfonamides

198
Q

Oral doxycycline administration has been associated with esophageal injury.

A

true

199
Q

In general, penicillins

A

are excreted mostly unchanged by the kidney

200
Q

_______________ is the only FDA-approved drug for systemic administration to treat superficial fungal diseases in veterinary patients.

A

griseofulvin

201
Q

The continued killing effect in the absence of drug concentrations above the MIC is called the _______________.

A

postantibiotic effect

202
Q

All of the following are true regarding aminoglycosides except:

A

penetrate the globe of the eye well

203
Q

Rifampin imparts a brownish color to urine, tears, sweat, and saliva.

A

false

204
Q

________ is the lowest concentration of drug needed to inhibit bacterial growth.

A

MIC

205
Q

The two most commonly used aminoglycosides in veterinary medicine are

A

Amikacin and gentamicin

206
Q

This antimicrobial may produce aplastic anemia in humans and is completely banned from use in any food animal.

A

chloramphenicol

207
Q

Alcohol should not be applied to open wounds for all of the following reasons except:

A

it dehydrates blood

208
Q

All of the following statements about nonenveloped viruses are false except:

A

includes parvovirus

209
Q

This high level disinfecting chemical steralizer kills bacteria normally protected by a biofilm

A

Glutaraldehyde

210
Q

Prepared dilutions of sodium hypochlorite for disinfecting can be mixed and stored for use at a later date.

A

false

211
Q

This microscopic glycocaylix material protects bacteria from disinfecting agents and is of great concern when it occurs on metal bone implants.

A

biofilm

212
Q

Sodium hypochlorite can be diluted with which of the following?

A

water

213
Q

This type of disinfectant is very effective against nonenveloped viruses. Often has a pungent odor and can be irritating to skin.

A

chlorine

214
Q

The key ingredient in Roccal-D belongs to this compound group

A

quaternary ammonium compounds

215
Q

Cidex, a product used for cold-sterilization of endoscopic equipment, belongs to which group of disinfecting agents?

A

aldehydes

216
Q

Color-safe bleach is just regular bleach with a lower concentration of sodium hypochlorite

A

false

217
Q

This biguanide antiseptic is one of the most commonly used disinfectants and antiseptic compounds in veterinary medicine.

A

chlorhexidine

218
Q

Roccal-D is ineffective against parvovirus.

A

true

219
Q

Rabies is classified as a nonenveloped virus and is difficult to kill.

A

false

220
Q

Common soaps

A

are anionic cleansers

221
Q

Low-level disinfectants are

A

none of these

222
Q

Bacteria and fungi in this state are designed to survive in a dormant state for years to decades.

A

spore

223
Q

Praziquantel and espirantel work by decreasing cell membrane permeability and calcium.

A

false

224
Q

Aniprotozoal drugs in veterinary medicine are most commonly used against which of the following organisms?

A

toxoplasma

225
Q

Which of the following statements about macrolides is incorrect?

A

target mammalian GABA receptors located within the CNS

226
Q

The head of the tapeworm is called the

A

scolex

227
Q

________is an IDI available in oral form

A

Lufernon

228
Q

All modern insecticides or ectoparasiticides are neurotoxins.

A

true

229
Q

This antiprotozoal agent is approved for use to eliminate Sarcocystis neurona in horses.

A

ponazuril

230
Q

Organophosphates and carbamates are considered current insecticides and are often found in veterinary medicine as therapeutic agents.

A

false

231
Q

This macrolide was originally used as an agricultural insecticide.

A

milbemycin oxime

232
Q

_____________ is a legend drug used as a dip or sponge-on bath for treatment of demodectic mange in dogs.

A

amitraz

233
Q

All of the following regarding praziquantel are true except

A

is ovicidal

234
Q

This benzimidazole should not be used during the first 30-45 days of pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects.

A

albendazole

235
Q

The drug of choice for treatment of disseminated toxoplasmosis in dogs and cats is

A

clindamycin

236
Q

Compounds that kill various types of internal parasitic worms are called

A

anthelmintics

237
Q

____________and isoxaline insecticide is a prescription only soft chewable tablet approved for dogs to treat fleas for up to 12 weeks

A

Fluralaner

238
Q

___________ means that the antiparasitic compound should be highly toxic to the parasite, but have little adverse effect on the host’s tissue and person

A

selective toxicity

239
Q

This drug is used to kill Wolbachia as part of the American Heartworm Society treatment protocol for canine heartworm disease.

A

Doxycycline

240
Q

Piperazine, a vermifuge

A
  • works by stimulating GABA receptors
  • paralyzes adult worms
  • does not kill migrating larave
241
Q

All of the following statements about generic drugs are true except:

A

They are manufactured by the same company as the branded drug

242
Q

Circumstances or conditions in which a patient should not use a specific drug are called ___________________.

A

Contraindications

243
Q

An emulsion:

A

Should be stirred or shaken prior to administering

244
Q

When calculating the number of tablets to dispense, the individual number of tablets per dose must always be determined and rounded to the nearest __________ or___________ tablet first.

A

half; whole

245
Q

The abbreviation meaning left eye is:

A

OS

246
Q

The movement of a drug from the systemic circulation into the tissues is called ____________.

A

Distribution

247
Q

Acid drugs:

A
  • Release hydrogen ion into the environment when placed in alkaline liquids
  • Become more hydrophilic in alkaline liquids
  • Acquire a charge in alkaline environments
248
Q

This tranquilizer should be avoided in breeding stallions

A

acepromazine

249
Q

Rapid IV injection of this injectable anesthetic has high risk for patient apnea.

A

Propofol

250
Q

Potassium channel blocker antiarrhythmic drugs:

A

Prolong repolarization period

251
Q

β blockers:

A

none of these

252
Q

Name one of the ACE inhibitors mentioned in this class.

A

Enalapril

253
Q

The acronym CHF stands for:

A

Congestive heart failure

254
Q

This Class I antiarrhythmic drug of choice is used as an IV administered drug.

A

Lidocaine

255
Q

Volatile oil expectorants are the preferred expectorant agent for use in veterinary patients.

A

False

256
Q

Drugs that increase watery secretions by the respiratory tract cells are called:

A

Expectorants

257
Q

Drugs used to increase airflow through respiratory passageways by relaxing the smooth muscle around them are called:

A

Bronchodilators

258
Q

a ______ is dry and hacking.

A

Nonproductive cough

259
Q

All of the following statements regarding hyperthyroidism are true except:

A

Is more often diagnosed in young cats

260
Q

Veterinary patients are more prone to drug induced thyrotoxicosis than human patients.

A

False

261
Q

A(n) ______ compound is one that originates outside of the body.

A

Exogenous

262
Q

The osmotic cathartic ____ is used to chronic constipation, as well as helping to reduce clinical signs associated with hepatic encephalopathy.

A

Lactulose

263
Q

The act of vomiting is:

A
  • Is physiologically not possible in some species
  • Coordinated by the emetic center
  • A normal protective mechanism
264
Q

ionophores

A
  • Improve conversion of cattle feed into animal weight
  • Are used in livestock to control coccidia
  • Can be toxic, even fatal, in horses
265
Q

Induction of emesis via 3% hydrogen peroxide:

A
  • Should be limited to 1.1-2.2 mL/kg (limit 45 mL)

- Must utilize “Fresh” Hydrogen peroxide for efficacy

266
Q

Nonsystemic antacids:

A

Chemically neutralize acid molecules in the stomach or rumen

267
Q

As a general rule, gastorenterologist recommend the use of antimicrobials in the treatment of most cases of VO and DI.

A

False

268
Q

All of the following are true regarding imidazole derivatives except:

A

Need a basic pH in the GI tract to be absorbed when given orally

269
Q

This type of penicillin is only administered via injection.

A

Penicillin G

270
Q

Cefovecin is a __________-generation veterinary cephalosporin.

A

Third

271
Q

Which of the following drugs are considered lincosamides?

A

Clindamycin and pirlimycin

272
Q

Which of the following is a first generation cephalosporin?

A

Cephapirin

273
Q

Cephalosporins are bacteriostatic beta lactam antimicrobials

A

False

274
Q

These disinfecting compounds are effective against the dermatophytes that cause ringworm.

A

Iodine compounds

275
Q

Alcohol preparations are most effecting at what concentration?

A

70-90%

276
Q

Which of the following compound is considered a low-level disinfectant?

A

Isopropyl alcohol

277
Q

All of the following are characteristics of the ideal disinfecting agent except:

A

Narrow-spectrum antimicrobial activity

278
Q

Sodium hypochlorite:

A

Is most effective as 10% solution

279
Q

Which of the following are true regarding heartworm?

A

Heartworm infection refers to the presence of adult D. immitis worms in the heart and pulmonary arteries

280
Q

IDI’s work by interfering with the deposition of chitin into the flea eggs

A

True

281
Q

An _______________ is a compound that kills some endoparasites and some ectoparasites.

A

Endectocide

282
Q

This OTC insecicide is derived from chrysanthemum flowers.

A

Pyrethrin

283
Q

Pyrethrin

A

Have an inflammatory lung process called HARD

284
Q

Pyrantel anthelmintics:

A
  • In suspensions must be shaken prior to administration
  • Are added on a continuous basis as a top dressing on horse feed
  • Are effective against ascarids
  • Mimic effect of excessive acetylcholine release on parasite muscle cells