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ZOO 3731 > Final Exam Cumulative > Flashcards

Final Exam Cumulative Flashcards

1
Q

A group of cells with a similar function that work together are called

A

Tissues

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2
Q

Which cavities are present within the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

The pelvic cavity and abdominal cavity

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3
Q

The organ system that gives your body structure is the

A

Skeletal system

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4
Q

The back is ____ to the abdomen

A

Dorsal

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5
Q

This kind of section separates right and left portions of the body in anatomical positions but misses the midline.

A

Parasagittal section

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6
Q

Most of the ascending colon is in the _____ region

A

Right lumbar

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7
Q

Which of the following functions of the epithelial tissue aids in digestion?

A

Secretion and release of mucus and specific chemical compounds

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8
Q

Tissue that connects muscle to bone

A

Tendon

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9
Q

Having a matrix is a characteristic of which type of tissue?

A

Connective

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10
Q

The urinary bladder is an organ that due to its function is required to be constantly contracting and expanding (relaxing). What type of epithelium is present therefore in this organ?

A

Transitional epithelium

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11
Q

When epithelial cells are flat they are referred to as ____ cells.

A

Squamous cells

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12
Q

The epidermis consists of stratified squamous epithelium. Which cell type found within these layers are a type of macrophage?

A

Langerhan cells

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13
Q

Karen was outside in the hot Miami weather. When she came into the Green Library, she felt a rush of cold air, developing shivers and goosebumps. What structure caused these goosebumps?

A

Arrector pili muscles

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14
Q

How many layers of dermis is present in thick skin

A

2

papillary layer and reticular layer

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15
Q

If a needle pokes your skin and results in instant bleeding, which skin layer has the needle reached?

A

Papillary layer of the dermis

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16
Q

Which is the last layer of skin in which the cells are still living?

A

Stratum granulosum

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17
Q

Layers of the epidermis form the deepest to most superficial are:

A

stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum

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18
Q

When a fracture is not given the correct medical treatment and therefore does not heal properly, bone formation begins to form at the area of fracture. What cell contributes to this bone formation?

A

Osteoblasts

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19
Q

What is the correct order of events for bone remodeling?

A

resorption, deposition, osteocyte mineralization

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20
Q

In an adult, the epiphysis is separated from the diaphysis by the:

A

Epiphyseal line

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21
Q

Estrogen is a hormone that aids in the absorption of calcium. When a woman reaches menopause, the production of estrogen is greatly reduced. Mary recently reached menopausal age and was advised to take a calcium supplement to reduce her risk of Osteoporosis. How can menopause affect Mary’s bones?

A

Osteoclasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause osteoporosis

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22
Q

The functional unit of a bone is known as an

A

osteon

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23
Q

Which bone feature is where one can find the olfactory nerve and what bone can it be found on?

A

Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone

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24
Q

Amanda was recently driving and was involved in a T-bone car accident. As the other car struck her passenger side, Amanda’s head hit against the side window located on the driver’s door. Which part of the skull would, most likely, be the areas where she could have sustained injuries?

A

Temporal and parietal bones

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25
Q

Which two bones/ bone features come together to form the nasal septum?

A

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone and the vomer

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26
Q

The ____ suture separates the frontal and parietal bones of the skull.

A

The coronal suture

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27
Q

Scoliosis occurs from

A

over-curvature laterally

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28
Q

Which bone has the linea aspera as one of the bone features?

A

femur

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29
Q

The head of the femur articulates with the

A

acetabulum

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30
Q

The head of the fibula articulates with the

A

posterior proximal part of the tibia

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31
Q

Which of the following bone(s) articulates with the femur?

A

tibia

fibula does not!

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32
Q

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia?

A

talus

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33
Q

Joints and upper limb skeleton

A
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34
Q

Which protein covers the active sites of the thin filaments, and therefore prevents muscle contraction?

A

Tropomyosin

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35
Q

Which statement defines etensibility?

A

The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths

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36
Q

Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber?

A

Striated appearance

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37
Q

The perimysium is a layer of connective tissue that:

A

Divides the muscle into a series of internal compartments, each containing a bundle of muscle fibers called a fasicle

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38
Q

Aponeurosis connects

A

Muscle to muscle as well as muscle to bone

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39
Q

The orbicularis oris muscle is an example of a

A

Circular muscle

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40
Q

The ____ muscle, named for its two bellies, opens the mouth

A

Digastric

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41
Q

Which of the following muscles raises the upper limb?

A

Levator labii superioris

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42
Q

The largest muscle of the upper back is the

A

Trapezius

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43
Q

Amanda has dimples. Dimples are an inherited trait caused by a shortened muscle which leads to a small depression in the flesh, either one that exists permanently or one that forms in the cheeks when one smiles. Which muscle causes this efffect?

A

Zygomaticus major

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44
Q

Dorsiflexion of the foot involves the

A

Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus and the extensor hallucis longus

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45
Q

What bone feature does the gluteus maximus insert on?

A

Gluteal tuberosity

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46
Q

Flexion at the knee involves which muscle?

A

Semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris, sartorius

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47
Q

in addition to flexing the knee, the sartorius:

A

flexes and laterally rotates the hip

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48
Q

In addition to flexing the knee, the sartorius:

A

Flexes and laterally rotates the hip

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49
Q

Adduction at the wrist involves contraction of the

A

flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris

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50
Q

Adduction at the wrist involves contraction of the

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris

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51
Q

Which action is performed by most of the muscles located on the anterior compartment of the forearm

A

Flexion

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52
Q

Which of the following retracts the scapula?

A

Rhomboid minor

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53
Q

The glial cells that destroy microorganisms in the CNS are:

A

microglia

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54
Q

The glial cells that destroy microorganisms in the CNS are:

A

Microglia

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55
Q

The glial cells that help to form cerebrospinal fluid are the

A

Ependymal cells

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56
Q

When the membrane potential of a cell membrane becomes more positive than the resting potential, one can say that the membrane has become

A

depolarized

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57
Q

When the membrane potential of a cell membrane becomes more positive than the resting potential, one can say that the membrane has become

A

Depolarized

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58
Q

Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system is:

A

Faster and more specific

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59
Q

Which of these is NOT a region of the spinal cord?

lumbar
thoracic
pelvic
cervical

A

Pelvic

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60
Q

In the spinal cord, the somas of the lower motor neurons are found in the:

A

Anterior horns

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61
Q

The ______ is the outermost meninx, and forms supportive and protective partitions between some portions of the brain

A

dura mater

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62
Q

The ______ is the outermost meninx, and forms supportive and protective partitions between some portions of the brain

A

Dura mater

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63
Q

The longest nerve that innervates the digestive system is the:

A

vagus nerve

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64
Q

The longest nerve that innervates the digestive system is the:

A

Vagus nerve

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65
Q

The superior trunk originates from the branches of which cervical nerve

A

C5 and C6

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66
Q

The sciatic nerve eventually branches into which nerves?

A

common fibular and tibial nerves

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67
Q

The inferior trunk gives rise to which cords?

A

medial and posterior

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68
Q

Which of the following structures connects the third and fourth ventricles?

A

aqueduct of the midbrain

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69
Q

Which structure communicates the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?

A

Interventricular foramen

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70
Q

Which of the following separates the motor information from sensory information?

A

Central sulcus

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71
Q

The axon of the Purkinje cells are located in the

A

Granular cell layer

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72
Q

The cell body of the Purkinje cells are located in the

A

Purkinje cell layer

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73
Q

Which cranial nerve has a cranial root and a spinal root

A

Accessory nerve CNXI

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74
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid?

A

Accessory

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75
Q

This nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle:

A

Trochlear nerve CN IV

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76
Q

The abducens nerve supplies innervation to the

A

lateral rectus muscle of the eye

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77
Q

The larger the receptive field, the ____ it is to localize the simulus

A

more difficult

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78
Q

Which of these types of receptors responds to pain stimuli

A

nociceptors

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79
Q

Which type of general sense receptor detects pressure changes in walls of blood vessels and in portions of the digestive, reproductive and urinary tracts?

A

Mechanoreceptors

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80
Q

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by:

A

nociceptors

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81
Q

Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are:

A

Externoreceptors

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82
Q

Which structure contains the utricle and saccule?

A

Vestibule

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83
Q

Olfactory glands function to:

A

secrete mucus

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84
Q

The scientific term for “blind spot” is

A

optic disc

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85
Q

The area of the eye with the greatest visual acuity (sharpest vision) is the

A

fovea centralis

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86
Q

The receptors of olfaction are found in the:

A

olfactory epithelium

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87
Q

Ventricular systole happens:

A

in a wave that begins at the apex and spreads toward the base

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88
Q

The “lubb” sound heard with a stethoscope is caused by:

A

Turbulence in the blood when the AV valves close

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89
Q

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

A

closure of the heart valves

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90
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the conduction system of the heart?

AV valve
AV node
SA node
Bundle of His

A

AV valve

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91
Q

Where are pacemaker cells found?

A

SA Node

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92
Q

Foramen Ovale

A

connects the two atria in a fetal heart

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93
Q

Which structure prevents backflow into the left atrium?

A

bicuspid valve

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94
Q

Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the:

A

papillary muscles

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95
Q

Which structure is known as AV valve with two flaps?

A

bicuspid valve

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96
Q

Which structure prevents backflow into the left ventricle?

A

aortic valve

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97
Q

The femoral artery originates from the:

A

external iliac artery

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98
Q

The left internal carotid artery carries blood from the:

A

Common carotid artery to the brain

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99
Q

A special feature of fenestrated capillaries is that they have:

A

Pores

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100
Q

The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the:

A

Descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum

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101
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning blood circulation?

A

The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

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102
Q

A thick midline ridge in the thyroid cartilage that is sometimes referred to as the Adam’s apple is technically named the:

A

Laryngeal prominence

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103
Q

The ridge found at the bifurcation of the trachea is called the:

A

Carina

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104
Q

The larynx is composed of _______ big pieces of cartilage: ____ ______ cartilage, and ____ _______ cartilage.

A

3: 2 hyaline and 1 elastic

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105
Q

The __________ separates the nasal and oral cavities.

A

Palate

106
Q

The ___________ is lined by squamous epithelium.

A

Oropharynx

107
Q

The ___________ is lined by squamous epithelium.

A

Oropharynx

108
Q

What salivary gland is responsible for producing a majority of our saliva and what kind of saliva is produced?

A

Submandibular; serous and mucous

109
Q

In the muscular layer of the digestive system, which of the following stimulate contraction?

A

Myenteric neural plexus

110
Q

Which structure of the teeth is most similar to bone?

A

Dentine

111
Q

Which mesentery attaches the liver to the diaphragm?

A

Falciform ligament

112
Q

Which layer of the esophagus is exposed to the lumeb?

A

Mucosa

113
Q

The greater omentum is attached to the ______ of the stomach.

A

Greater curvature

114
Q

Within the stomach lining, ____ cells secrete hydrochloric acid.

A

Parietal

115
Q

The bile originating from the right and left hepatic ducts must pass through which ducts to reach the gallbladder?

A

Common hepatic duct, common bile duct, cystic duct

116
Q

Production of bile is one of several important functions of the

A

Liver

117
Q

Which three components make up the Porta Hepatis

A

Hepatic artery proper, hepatic portal vein, common bile duct

118
Q

What structure transports urine from the kidney to the bladder?

A

Ureter

119
Q

Which muscle compresses the urinary bladder to remove the urine inside?

A

Detrusor muscle

120
Q

The _____ is the functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

121
Q

Which structure anchors the kidney to surrounding structures?

A

Renal fascia

122
Q

The renal pyramids are located within the

A

Medulla

123
Q

What collects spermatozoa from the rete testis and transports them into the head of the epididymis:

A

Efferent ductules

124
Q

Outline the correct pathway of sperm to travel.

  1. Rete Testis
  2. Epididymis
  3. Seminiferous Tubules
  4. Ejactulatory Duct
  5. Vas Deferens
  6. Efferent Ductules
A

3 –> 1 –> 6 –> 2 –> 5 –> 4

125
Q

Frank has been outside playing basketball in 101°F weather. Describe the appearance of his testicles from your understanding of their muscular anatomy.

A

They are father from his body and smooth because the muscles are relaxed.

126
Q

Which is the main gland responsible for neutralizing the acidity of the urethra and the vagina?

A

Seminal gland

127
Q

The ________ hormone triggers the contraction of smooth muscles in the walls of lactiferous ducts & sinuses, which eject milks out of the nipple.

A

Oxytocin

128
Q

Fertilization most likely occurs at the

A

Ampulla of the uterine tubule

129
Q

This structure in females is homologous to the corpus cavernosum in males:

A

Citoris

130
Q

This phase consists of the destruction of the endometrium. Arteries of the region will constrict blood flow and cause cells of endometrium to die. Which phase is it?

A

Menstruation

131
Q

A person falls on the lateral side of his thigh. Which of the following bone features are most likely to have fractured?

A

Greater trochanter of the femur

132
Q

Using long bone features, how could you determine the age of an individual?

A

Using the epiphyseal plate

133
Q

Which bone represents the smallest portion of the orbit?

A

Palatine

134
Q

Which bone feature does the head of the rib articulate with?

A

Superior costal facet

135
Q

Choose the type of rib and number of ribs that matches

A

Vertebrosternal; 7

136
Q

Which of the following include only facial bones?

A

Maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatic, lacrimals

137
Q

The sagittal suture is the boundary between which bones?

A

Left and right parietal bones

138
Q

Which of the following vertebral curvatures is (are) convex anteriorly?

A

Both cervical and lumbar

139
Q

Which of the following is false when discussing the vertebrae?

A

Thoracic vertebrae contain transverse foramen

140
Q

Lumbar vertebrae can hold the ___ weight

A

most

141
Q

The intervertebral disc between the atlas and axis

A

does not exist

142
Q

All thoracic vertebrae have

A

costal facets

143
Q

Which of the following cell type is found in the epidermis?

A

Langerhan cells

NOT mast cells, eosinophils, neutrophils, or fibroblasts

144
Q

Which of the following functions of the skin is correct?

A

Pain is a cutaneous sensation that is caused by tissue damage

145
Q

Melanie has darker skin than Michael. What is likely the explanation for this?

A

Melanie spends more time in the sun than Michael because it can not be caused by more melanocytes/ more melanin produced by melanocytes

146
Q

Julia explains to her friend that the integument is composed of skin and its derivatives, like hair, nails, and glands. That the skin is formed by the epidermis, dermis and hypodermis, She describes the epidermis as having four layers in thin skin and the dermis as having a papillary and reticular region. She asserts that the dermis is located above the subcutaneous layer. What is incorrect about this statement?

A

She inaccurately describes the formation of the skin

147
Q

An accident report submitted by an officer who is a former anatomy student contains the following statement: “The victim suffered a severe blow to the brachial region.” This means

A

The victim was struck in the arm

148
Q

In regards to the abdominopelvic region, which of the following is correctly matched?

A

Epigastric region and gallbladder

149
Q

In clinical settings several diagnostic techniques may be used. Which of the ones listed below is commonly used to check if your immune system has been activated due to a viral infection?

A

Palpitation

150
Q

Which life process listen below is used to describe what happens to the sperm as it searches for the egg inside of the female body?

A

Movement

151
Q

Phalanges are considered to be ___ to the humerus

A

distal

152
Q

A ____ section of the body or organ would reveal its right and left side.

A

Sagittal

153
Q

Which of the following are examples of irregular bones?

A

vertebrae, coxal bone, calcaneus

154
Q

The function of an osteoprogenitor cell in osseous tissue is to:

A

Produce new osteoblasts

155
Q

What is the mechanism of marrow cavity enlargement in a long bone?

A

As bone matrix is added to the external surface, osteoclasts remove matrix in the center of the bone to enlarge the cavity

156
Q

The connective tissue covering the inner surface of a bone is (the)

A

endosteum

157
Q

Which of the following works with calcitriol to maintain bone homeostasis

A

Parathyroid hormone

158
Q

Which of the following bone markings are present in the articulation between two bones?

A

Condyles, facets and heads

159
Q

Which of the following is false regarding ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification is a much more complicated process than endochondral ossification

160
Q

Stuart has a bacterial infection. What cell type(s) will most likely have high concentrations?

A

Neutrophils, macrophages, and mast cells

161
Q

An oncologist biopsied a portion of a patient’s stomach to determine if cancer was present. When looking under a microscope what would constitute normal stomach tissue?

A

Single layer of rectangle-like cells***

162
Q

Which of the following type of exocrine gland releases fluid through exoytosis?

A

Eccrine

163
Q

Which connective tissue cell will secrete the ground substance?

A

Fibroblasts

164
Q

Which of the following statements about epithelial tissue is true?

A

Unlike epithelial tissue, connective tissue is highly vascularized

165
Q

Which cell junction is formed by the presence of connexons which allow the passage of ions in muscle tissue?

A

Gap junctions

166
Q

Directing immediate response to stimuli, usually by coordinating the activities of other organ systems is the function of the

A

nervous system

167
Q

The skin is formed by

A

epidermis and dermis

168
Q

Which of the following is the highest level of organization?

A

Organs

169
Q

The basement membrane is formed by

A

Basal and reticular lamina

170
Q

The urinary bladder is located in which cavity

A

Pelvic

171
Q

Which structure is located in the central canal of the osteon?

A

Blood vessels

172
Q

Which pairing of organ system and organ is correct?

A

Digestive; pharynx

173
Q

The mandibular fossa articulates with the ____ located in the ____ bone

A

Mandibular condyle; mandible

174
Q

In compact bone, osteocytes are present inside structures called:

A

Lacuna

175
Q

Muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limbs are organized into all of the following groups except:

A

muscles that move the pectoral girdle

176
Q

Which statement about the intercostals is correct?

A

The internal intercostals depress the ribs when it contracts

177
Q

The superior articular facet of the atlas articulates with which bone?

A

Occipital condyles

178
Q

Which epidermal layer is found in thick skin only?

A

Stratum lucidum

179
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the endothelium of blood vessels?

A

Simple squamous

180
Q

Which of the following structures can most easily be felt dorsally?

A

Spinous process

181
Q

Which of the following is a tendon characteristic

A

Consists of collagen fibers

182
Q

When pedaling your bike, which of the following movements are NOT being performed?

A

Abduction at the hip

183
Q

The olecranon articulates with the ___ when it is in the ____ position

A

olecranon fossa; extended

184
Q

Which of the following is paired correctly with regards to the structure that forms the joint?

A

Cranial suture, fibrous

185
Q

The lateral femoral condyle will articulate with which bone feature?

A

lateral tibial condyle

186
Q

Which of the articulations below are considered to be biaxial?

A

saddle and condylar

187
Q

Muscles located below the hyoid bone and that insert on the hyoid bone will most likely perform

A

depression of the hyoid bone

188
Q

Listed below are origin (first); insertion (second) of muscles. Which of these are impossible to be present in any muscle found in our body?

A

fibula; femur

189
Q

Which type of motion is found between the phalanges?

A

hinge

190
Q

Which articulation of flexed elbow is incorrect?

A

olecranon; olecranon fossa (this happens during extension)

191
Q

Which of the following inaccurately describes the pectoral and pelvic girdles

A

the pectoral girdle is formed by 1 bone and the pelvic girdle is formed by 3 bones

192
Q

Which statement about the diaphragm openings is correct?

A

The aorta, azygos vein and thoracic duct pass through the aortic hiatus

193
Q

Which bone feature of the humerus is always articulating with the radius, independent if the forearm is flexed or extended?

A

Capitulum

194
Q

The pelvis includes which bone of the axial skeleton?

A

Sacrum

195
Q

Which of the movements below is exclusively found on the body part listed and nowhere else?

A

inversion; ankle

196
Q

Which lateral muscle belongs to the group known as the hamstrings?

A

biceps femoris

197
Q

Which torso muscles are involved in lateral flexion of the abdomen?

A

external oblique, internal oblique, quadratus lumborum

198
Q

In regards to the arrangement of fascicles, which of the following is correctly matched?

A

Multipennate, deltoid

199
Q

Where is huge amounts of Ca2+ store prior to muscle contraction?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

200
Q

Together, the quadriceps femoris will work to

A

Extend the knee

201
Q

Which muscles will work together to adduct the wrist?

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi ulnaris

202
Q

Choose the bone features that belong to the bone of your arm and are located distally

A

medial and lateral epicondyles, coronoid and radial fossa

203
Q

The fibula

A

provides lateral stability to the ankle

204
Q

Which muscles could cause dorsiflexion?

A

Gastrocnemius, soleus, and tibialis posterior

205
Q

Which muscle causes adduction at the hop

A

adductor longus

206
Q

Which bone(s) articulate with the distal portion of the radius?

A

Carpals and ulna

207
Q

Which section of the sarcomere only contains thin filaments?

A

I band

208
Q

Which muscle is just inferior to the scapular spine and is part of the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Infraspinatus

209
Q

While driving to school to take an anatomy test, Peter gets in a car accident and breaks the clavicle on the steering wheel. Which of the following muscles is the most likely damaged?

A

Omohyoid

210
Q

When the statue of liberty is lifting her arm up, she is

A

flexing at the shoulder

211
Q

Which of the following muscles is used to look to the right with the left eye?

A

Medial rectus

212
Q

Julia is teaching her peers about the characteristics of smooth muscle, which statement is correct

A

smooth muscle tissue fibers are not organized into sarcomeres

213
Q

Which of the following muscle rules is correct?

A

Muscles always cross at least one joint

214
Q

Which bone head is the only one that is distal?

A

Ulna

215
Q

A muscle that extends the neck will most likely have its origin in which bone?

A

cervical vertebrae

216
Q

Which action is performed by most muscles in the posterior compartment of the forearm?

A

Extension

217
Q

The articulation between the left and right parietal bones is the

A

sagittal suture

218
Q

The term thick and thin skin refers to the relative thickness of the:

A

epidermis only

219
Q

A muscle is classified functionally as an agonist when:

A

It is the main muscle that contracts to produce a particular movement

220
Q

At each end of a long bone is an expanded, knobby region called the

A

epiphysis

221
Q

Which neuron below is considered a sensory neuron?

A

Unipolar neuron***

222
Q

Which of the following are most closely involved with somatic sensory neurons?

A

proprioceptors**

223
Q

Which statement is correct about neurogenesis

A

astrocytes create a physical barrier**

224
Q

Which glial cell population would you expect to increase during a brain infection?

A

microglia

225
Q

What happens to calcium during a chemical synapse?

A

Enters the pre-synaptic terminal

226
Q

A patient receives spinal fusion surgery on their spine which rods and screws are inserted in order to correct lateral abnormalities. After the surgery the patient realized that they could not feel their arms. What is the most probable cause for this symptom?

A

There was damage to the posterior horn at the level of C5-T5

227
Q

The denticulate ligaments in the spinal cord attach the _____ to the _____

A

pia mater to the arachnoid mater

228
Q

The white matter of the spinal cord mainly contain

A

neuronal axons

229
Q

In which plexus is the median nerve found?

A

Brachial plexus

230
Q

Which muscle would you expect the deep fibular nerve to innervate

A

tibialis anterior

231
Q

Coordinating skeletal muscle movement and maintaining equilibrium are two of several important functions of the

A

cerebellum

232
Q

Which structure produces cerebrospinal fluid in each ventricle?

A

choroid plexus

233
Q

The cerebral hemispheres are separated by the

A

longitudinal fissure

234
Q

Which region of the diencephalon controls the body temperature, carious emotions and behavioral drives, and is known as the center of homeostasis?

A

hypothalamus

235
Q

Which cerebral cortical is involved with the planning of motor activities?

A

premotor cortex

236
Q

The blood-brain barrier of the CNS is missing or markedly reduced in which location?

A

choroid plexus, hypothalamus, and the pineal gland

237
Q

There are ocular misalignment conditions called “palsy’s” in which there is paralysis of the extrinsic eye muscles. These conditions can cause drooping of the eyelid and misalignment of the yes. Which cranial nerve could NOT be involved in such cases?

A

Optic nerve

238
Q

After we put on our clothes we forget about it. Which of the following correctly pairs the receptors involved in this phenomena

A

Phasic and mechanoreceptors

239
Q

Which of the following sensory information reach the cerebral cortex without first passing through the thalamus

A

olfactory

240
Q

The sensory cells responsible for hearing are located in the

A

cochlea

241
Q

Which of the statements below is true regarding our eyes?

A

Rods and cones are photoreceptors located in the neural layer of the retina with black/white and colorvision, respectively

242
Q

The taste receptors located on our tongue are activated by chemicals. Taste receptors are found on the ____ belonging to ______ which ultimately activate nerve fibers that transmit the signal to our gustatory cortex located on the _________

A

taste hairs, gustatory ells, insula **

243
Q

What is the function of the auditory tube?

A

It serves to equalize the pressure in the middle ear cavity with external, atmospheric pressure

244
Q

The inferior, conical end of the heart is called the

A

apex

245
Q

Pulmonary veins carry ____ blood from the _____ to the ______

A

oxygenated; lungs; heart

246
Q

Which structures prevent the AV valves from everting and flipping into the atria when the ventricles contract?

A

chordae tendineae and papillary muscles

247
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the cardiovascular system is true

A

When the heart beats, both atria contract at the same time followed by the contraction of both ventricles

248
Q

A patient comes into the hospital suffering from chest pains. After careful examination by the doctors, it was determined that the right ventricle of the heart was over-expanding. Which of the following structures is most likely failing?

A

Moderator band

249
Q

What are the three layers of the heart wall, in order from external to internal

A

epicardium, myocardium, endocardium ***

250
Q

The rapidly depolarizing cells, called pacemaker cells, are found in the ____, which is embedded in the posterior wall of the ____

A

SA node; right atrium

251
Q

______ and ______ can circumvent blockages maintaining and/or restoring blood flow to deprived areas

A

collateral arteries; anastomosis

252
Q

From superior to inferior direction, these are unpaired blood vessels branching off the abdominal aorta

A

celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, inferior mesenteric artery

253
Q

Valves found inside veins are functionally similar to which cardiac structure

A

semilunar valves because they close when the blood falls on them

254
Q

Very large blood vessels require blood supply to their walls, and this is provided by a network of small blood vessels found on the tunica adventitia of these blood vessels. These blood vessels are called

A

Vasa vasorum

255
Q

The choroid plexus of the ventricles in the brain, ciliary body of the eyes, and hypothalamus contain _____ capillaries

A

fenestrated

256
Q

What are the three main arterial branches that emerge from the aortic arch

A

brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid, left subclavian artery

257
Q

The _______ artery splits in to the external and internal carotid arteries and contain the ____ which detects O2 and CO2 levels in the blood

A

common carotid and carotid body

258
Q

All of the following are functions of Nurse cells except

A

healing injured sperm cells wounded by immune cells

259
Q

Which of the following structure contains a serosa layer?

A

Stomach

260
Q

The ____ zone included the trachea, while the ____ zone includes alveoli

A

conducting, respiratory

261
Q

Which mechanisms allows respiration to occur?

A

intrathoracic pressure decreases

262
Q

If you were describing the bones in the hand to a friend, which two types of bones would your descriptioninclude?

A

sesamoid and short bones

ZOO 3731 (1 decks)

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