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PSYC-4920: Neuroscience of Fear and Anxiety > Fear Test- Terms I > Flashcards

Fear Test- Terms I Flashcards

1
Q

Hebb’s Law

A

When an axon of cell A is near enough to excite a cell B and repeatedly or persistently takes part in firing it, some growth process or metabolic change takes place in one or both cells such that A’s efficiency, as one of the cells firing B, is increased.

  • synapses are strengthened only when their presynaptic activity coincides with postsynaptic activity. Now in the future, less stimulation of the presynaptic cell is required to activate the postsynaptic cell (increased efficiency)
    • neurons that fire together wire together
    • when a weak and strong stimulus activate the same neuron, the strong stimulus changes the chemistry of the neurons in such a way as to enable the weak stimulus to activate the neurons more strongly in the future
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2
Q

NMDA receptors

A

blocked by a magnesium ions at resting potential

	- upon depolarization, the ion is repelled and removed to open the channel
	- when glutamate binds to the unblocked NMDA receptor, calcium ions can enter the cell and trigger an intracellular biochemical cascade of events that will result in cellular changes
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3
Q

AMPA receptors

A

not blocked by magnesium ion, so they can immediately open in response to glutamate binding even when the cell is at resting potential
-binding of glutamate opens an associated sodium ion channel, and this influx of sodium allows for enough depolarization in the cell to eject the magnesium ion from the NMDA receptors

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4
Q

long term potentiation (LTP)

A

patterns of synaptic activity that produce a long-lasting increase in signal transmission between two neurons

- considered the process that underlies learning and memory
- discovered by Lomo in 1966 when he observed that tetanic stimulation (repeated stimulations at high frequency) of a neuron causes it to subsequently result in larger EPSPs
- follows Hebb’s Law—> synapses are strengthened only when their presynaptic activity coincides with postsynaptic activation/depolarization
- following LTP, a weaker amount of stimulation is required to activate the implicated cells (increased efficiency of firing)
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5
Q

cued conditioning

A

a particular stimulus (the CS) predicts another stimulus (the US)

- ex: a tone (CS) predicts a shock (US)
- phase 1=habituation—> exposure to the CS alone
- phase 2=conditioning—> CS-US pairings presented
- phase 3=CS test—> CR is tested by presenting the CS alone
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6
Q

contextual conditioning

A

other stimuli present in the context are also paired with the US along with the intended CS

- contexts are not simple and are comprised of multiple sensory features
- context conditioning is best able to signal the US if its features are bound together in as unitary event (dorsal hippocampus)
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7
Q

survival circuity

A

manages interactions with the environment to aid survival

- activated in situations where well-being is challenged or enhanced
- overall response of the brain and body is the global organismic state - detects and responds to threats and provides defensive motivation
- not the neural instantiation of fear (more of a cognitive/concious process)
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8
Q

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD):

A

a condition which results after experiencing a trauma(s)

- sleep disturbances, exaggerated startle
- irritability, recurrent thoughts about the trauma, hypervigilance, focus on threats, avoidant behaviours and thoughts
- feelings of fear, anger, guilt, shame, lack of positive affect
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9
Q

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD):

A

excessive or disproportionate worry about several aspects of life

- sleep disturbances, fatigue, GI disturbances, headaches
- worrying, avoidant behaviours and thoughts, overvaluation of threat significance and likelihood, failure to distinguish safety from danger
- feeling tense, worried, unable to relax or concentration
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10
Q

valium. What kind of disorder does it help with?

A

a benzodiazepine

- Donald Klein observed reduced chronic anxiety but no effect on panic attacks in his patients
* helps GAD but not panic disorder
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11
Q

Imipramine. What kind of disorder does it help with?

A

a tricyclic antidepressant

- Donald Klein observed no change in anxiety levels but reduced symptoms of panic attacks (psychological and physiological) in his schizophrenic patients
* helps panic disorder but not GAD
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12
Q

DSM. What school of thought initially predominated it?

A

was initially dominated by the Freudian distinction between neurosis and psychosis

- neuroses=conditions in which the person suffered distress but without significant distortions of thought
- psychoses=incompetent thinking, like hallucinations and delusions
- the DSM-III came out in the 80s and included 2 major subdivisions within neurosis: GAD and panic disorder, following research findings from psychiatrist Donald Klein that found imipramine and valium had different effects for these two categories 
- the DSM-IV came out in the 90s, and included specific phobias, social phobias, obsessive-compulsive (OCD), and war neuroses (PTSD)
- now in the DSM-5, OCD and PTSD are in their own categories (not grouped with anxiety disorders)
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13
Q

T/F: currently, DSM5 classifies OCD and PTSD with anxiety disorders

A

false.

  • the DSM-IV came out in the 90s, and included specific phobias, social phobias, obsessive-compulsive (OCD), and war neuroses (PTSD)
    • now in the DSM-5, OCD and PTSD are in their own categories (not grouped with anxiety disorders)
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14
Q

panic disorder

A

sensations of panic/panic attacks arise regularly, often without warning
physical symptoms include shortness of breath, choking feeling, chest pains, GI disturbances, and dizziness
-avoidance behaviours and thoughts
-feelings of being out of control, losing your mind, or feeling like you’ll die

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15
Q

social phobia

A

social anxiety disorder

- pounding heart, sweating, blushing, GI disturbances, trembling, shaky voice
- behavioural and mental freezing, avoidant behaviours and thoughts
- feeling embarrassed or rejected, feeling like you’re being observed
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16
Q

specific phobia

A

an extreme or irrational aversion to something

- pounding heart, sweating, GI disturbances, trembling
- behavioural and mental freezing, avoidant behaviours and thoughts
- feeling frightened and concerned about being harmed by objects or a particular situation
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17
Q

OCD

A

a mental health disorder characterized by obsessions and compulsions, which impair quality of life

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18
Q

This part of the amygdala receives CS and US inputs, and connects with other parts of the amygdala (central, basal, ITC)

- implicated in the formation of the association between the CS and US (site of integration of the stimuli)
* main recipient of sensory inputs, so it detects the threat and can then signal it to the other parts of the amygdala
A

Lateral amygdala

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19
Q

this part of the amygdala is involved with involved in inhibiting freezing to allow a LEARNED instrumental response to be emitted (in a stressful situation, may need to inhibit a CR in order to make an escape response)

- receives inputs from the LA, and also contextual inputs from the hippocampus—allows for contextual conditioning
- sends outputs to the central amygdala but also to the sensory cortices (primary, secondary, tertiary), parietal cortex, and the PFC 
- one key output is the shell of the NAcc, which allows for defensive actions like avoidance 
* origin of most connections to the sensory and other cortical areas. Outputs of the BA to the prefrontal and parietal areas allow for TOP -DOWN control over sensory processing
A

Basal amygdala

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20
Q

intercalculated cells

A

receives inputs from the LA, BA and projects to the CeA

-allows for modulations of the outputs going to the CeA

21
Q

Central amygdala

A

connects with targets that will separately control freezing, ANS responses, and hormone CRs

- sends outputs to the arousal systems, which contain neurons that manufacture various neuromodulators like DA and NE and innervate diffusely throughout the brain
* through CeA activation, attention and vigilance can be altered—> leads to defensive reactions (not actions)
- receives inputs from the BA, LA, and ITC
22
Q

extinction neurons in the ___ amygdala is under executive control by the ____ vmPFC

threat neurons in the ___ amygdala is under executive control by the ___ vmPFC

Both are contextually (hippocampally) mediated.

A

extinction neuron=in the basal amygdala

- under executive control by the infralimbic vmPFC  - threat neuron=in the basal amygdala
- under executive control by the prelimbic vmPFC
- contextually-mediated * avoidance depends on the LA and BA
23
Q

predatory imminence theory:

A

prey’s behaviour changes systematically as the imminence of the predator changes. The prey’s goal is to exit from the sequence as soon as possible to prevent an unsuccessful defensive effort

- pre-encounter=predator has not been detected
- encounter=prey detects the predator (freezing is dominant, followed by a flee to safety if necessary and possible)
- circa-strike=time immediately before or after the predator makes physical contact
24
Q

bed nucleus of the stria terminalis (BNST) is part of the extended amygdala that is involved with:

A

processing uncertainty—> controls reactions and actions based on uncertain threats (while in contrast, the amygdala controls reactions based on threats that are present or highly likely to occur)

- has many of the same outputs as the amygdala
	- ex: like the CeA, also connects with circuits that will control defensive behaviours and the SNS stress responses
	- ex: like the BA, it also connects with the hippocampus and the vmPFC
- does not receive the sensory inputs that the LA receives
- its connections with the BA and CeA give the BNST access to the amygdala’s processing of specific threat cues
25
Q

NPU threat test

A

a test used to assess short term (fear) and long term (anxiety) aversive states in humans

- contains three conditions, each with a unique visual stimuli (ex: a different geometric shape)	
- N condition=no aversive event
- P condition=predictable aversive event (paired condition, so the aversive event is signalled by a CS)	*evokes fear
- U condition=unpredictable aversive event (unpaired condition, so the aversive event can occur at any time)	*evokes anxiety
- the participants’ fear and anxiety is then assessed using the startle reflex, most commonly through an EMG of the orbicularis oculi to measure the blink reflex
26
Q

extended amygdala

A

contains the BNST and the Nacc
-involved in processing uncertainty—> controls reactions and actions based on uncertain threats (while in contrast, the amygdala controls reactions based on threats that are present or highly likely to occur)

27
Q

adrenal cortex

A

outer perimeter of the adrenal gland (interior is the adrenal medulla)

- participates in the stress response by releasing cortisol, which can cross the BBB to affect both the body and brain
- in the HPA axis, the adrenal cortex gets stimulated by ACTH to release cortisol into the bloodstream
28
Q

hypothalamus pituitary adrenal (HPA) axis

A

body’s stress system

- the cortex appraises the hypothalamus of events, which releases CRF to activate the pituitary gland (technically outside the brain)
- the pituitary gland releases ACTH into the bloodstream to activate the adrenal gland
- the adrenal gland then releases catecholamines (NE, E) and glucocorticoids (cortisol)
- many stress responses elicited by these hormones work to increase blood glucose to provide energy to working organs (heart, lungs) and muscles (prepare a physical response to a stressor)
29
Q

sympathetic adrenal medulla (SAM)

A

the interior of the adrenal gland is the medulla

- stimulated by activation of the sympathetic NS
- releases epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream to enhance the body’s stress response
- these hormones cannot cross the BBB but have a rapid effect
30
Q

periaqueductal (central) grey:

A

receives inputs from the central amygdala in the defensive survival circuit, and is involved in the control of defensive behaviours like freezing
-also receives inputs from the hypothalamus in the amygdala-hypothalamic-PAG rage pathway, allowing it to participate in defensive behaviours

31
Q

autonomic nervous system:

A

a division of the peripheral nervous system which acts largely unconsciously and regulates bodily functions

- neuron fibers that innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and other non-motor organs 
- regulates visceral activities normally outside the realm of higher brain control (ex: circulation, thermoregulation, digestion)
- has two divisions=the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
32
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

stimulates the body’s “fight, flight, or freeze” responses—promotes responses that prepare the animal for strenuous physical activity

- activated in response to a stressor (-prepares the body for the energy and activity required to fight or flee from a threat)
- resulting changes are all targeted at increasing the flow of oxygenated and nutrient-rich blood to the skeletal muscles in anticipation of strenuous activity
- activation of the SNS also activates the adrenal medulla to release additional epinephrine and norepinephrine to amplify the stress response
- ex: dilation of pupils, increase HR, increase respiratory rate, decrease digestion
33
Q

dynamic origins of memory principle

A

he idea that some areas are absolutely necessary is more often false than true

- the hippocampus’ involvement in contextual conditioning and trace memory is only temporary
- ex: Wiltgen and colleagues removed the hippocampus after training, but were able to re-establish contextual fear conditioning after removal. Similar results were achieved after removal of the amygdala
* demonstrates that contextual fear learning can still be acquired via other areas/secondary pathways
- sensory inputs terminate in the LA via either the thalamus or the cortex, and threat conditioning to a stimulus can be mediated by either pathway (although the cortical pathway has been found to be slower than the thalamic pathway)
34
Q

escape:

A

performing a certain response or behaviour removes a present aversive stimulus
-motivated by negative reinforcement (removing something aversive)

35
Q

active avoidance

A

the performance of a response results in the prevention of an aversive stimulus or outcome
-doing something

36
Q

passive avoidance

A

harm is avoided or postponed by not taking action/by not making a particular response

37
Q

goal-directed behaviour

A

a response is made with a particular outcome in mind

- response-outcome (R-O) learning
- become reinforced through the ventral striatum (NAcc and VTA connections)
- ex: active avoidance or escape behaviours
38
Q

caudate-putamen

A

the two components of the dorsal striatum

-implicated in the development of habits (S-R learning)

39
Q

habits

A

instrumental actions that have become so ingrained that they lose their relation to outcomes

- once a goal-directed action (R-O) has proven successful repeatedly, it becomes automatic in the presence of a particular stimulus 
- stimulus-response (S-R) associations—the presence of a stimulus elicits a response
- mediated by the DORSAL STRIATUM (the caudate and putamen)
40
Q

striatum (two parts).

A
  • ventral=reward learning
    - NAcc
    - defensive actions like avoidance
    • dorsal=habit learning
      • caudate and putamen
      • once a defensive action becomes habitual and the AMYGDALA IS NO LONGER REQUIRED
    • NAcc=considered part of the ventral striatum but also part of the extended amygdala
      • connections with the CeA, BA and the BNST
      • functions in performing defensive actions (ex: avoidance) *CeA leads to reactions, while the NAcc leads to actions
41
Q

ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC)

A

involved in the regulation of threat conditioning and extinction
-regulates the storage, acquisition, expression, and extinction of threat memories by the amygdala

42
Q

two limbic regions of the vmPFC

A

infralimbic region=regulates changes that take place over repeated repetitions of the CS in the absence of the US
-involved in ability to weaken the threat potential of the CS via extinction—EXTINCTION neurons in the basal amygdala are under executive control by infralimbic vmPFC

  • prelimbic region=regulates the expression of responses on a trial-by-trial basis and determines the intensity of the responses for that occurrence of the CS
    - THREAT neurons in the basal amygdala are under executive control by prelimbic vmPFC
43
Q

hippocampus. What kind of conditioning is it involved in?

A

involved in the contextual modification of threat conditioning and extinction

- it learns about the context of acquisition and modulates the expression and extinction of threat memories in relation to the context
- dorsal hippocampus=important in context conditioning—binds the individual features of the context into a unitary stimulus to be conditioned
44
Q

Renewal. ABA vs ABC vs AAB

A

renewal: reappearance of an extinguished response produced by a shift away from the contextual cues that were present during extinction
- ABA=shift is back to the context of acquisition (context of acquisition-context of extinction-context of acquisition)
- results in renewal
- ABC=shift is to a context unrelated to either acquisition or extinction (context of acquisition-context of extinction-novel context)
- results in renewal, so a return to context of acquisition is not necessary for renewal of the extinguished response
- AAB=being switched out of the context of acquisition and extinction into a completely new context for testing (context of acquisition is same as extinction, then new context)
- results in renewal but tends to be weaker, so the return to the context of acquisition does have some influence

45
Q

reinstatement

A

reappearance of an extinguished response produced by exposure to the US or reinforcer

- presentation of the US causes recovery
- very strong if presented in the original context
46
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

reappearance of an extinguished response caused by the passage of time
-if a rest period is introduced after extinction training, responding comes back (the longer the rest period, the greater the recovery)

47
Q

reticular formation

A

a diffuse network in the brainstem involved in arousal that projected to different areas of the brain (through the midbrain to the cortex)
-the original view of arousal described that it controlled sleep, wakefulness and alertness

48
Q

ventral tegmental area (VTA): part of the arousal system and releases ____

  • 42) locus coeruleus: part of the arousal system and releases____
  • 43) lateral dorsal tegmentum: part of the arousal system and releases ____
  • 44) basal forebrain: part of the arousal system and releases ____ and ____
  • 45) substantia nigra: part of the arousal system and releases _____

46 pedunculopontine: part of the arousal system and releases ___

A

ventral tegmental area (VTA): part of the arousal system and releases dopamine

  • 42) locus coeruleus: part of the arousal system and releases norepinephrine
  • 43) lateral dorsal tegmentum: part of the arousal system and releases acetylcholine
  • 44) basal forebrain: part of the arousal system and releases acetylcholine and GABA
  • 45) substantia nigra: part of the arousal system and releases dopamine
    46) pedunculopontine: part of the arousal system and releases acetylcholine

PSYC-4920: Neuroscience of Fear and Anxiety (3 decks)

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