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SAIW QC Level 2 > exam paper 3 mc > Flashcards

exam paper 3 mc Flashcards

1
Q

Preheating for arc welding applies to:

A. assembly welding only
B. assembly and tack welding
C. joints over 25 mm thick only
D. cruciform welds only

A

B. assembly and tack welding

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2
Q

Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Prehealing increases hardness
B. Preheating increases cooling
C. Preheating decreases dialtoin
D. Preheating increases shrinkage stress

A

C. Preheating decreases dialtoin

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3
Q

One of the reasons for excluding hydrogen from the weld metal is to prevent the weld from:
a. cracking
b. cooling slowly
c. cooling quickly
d. expanding

A

a. cracking

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4
Q

When a metal regains its original shape if a load acting upon it is removed, the metal is said to have:
a) ductility
b) plasticity
c) malleability
d) elasticity

A

d) elasticity

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5
Q

The principal requirements in the design of welded joints are:
a) safe performance in service
b) optimum economy of preparation and welding
c) suitability for the environment in which the joints are working
d) a and c

A

d) a and c

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6
Q

In the welding of austenitic stainless steels, the electrode and plate material can be purchased with low carbon contents. The reason for this is to decrease the possibility of:
a) cracking
b) the formation of chromium carbides
c) cracking in the weld metal
d) distortion

A

b) the formation of chromium carbides

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7
Q

In a steel that has improved creep properties at elevated temperatures, which one of the following elements helps in this Improvement?

a) tungsten
b) manganese
c) molyadenum
d) carbon

A

c) molyadenum

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8
Q

Welding procedures may require welds to be deposited with a controlled high or low heat input.
High heat inputs can cause:
a) poor weld profile
b) an increase in grain size
c) high hardness levels in the HAZ
d) low elongation properties

A

b) an increase in grain size

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8
Q

Cracks in welds may be due to:
a) solidification problems
b) hydrogen problems
c) excessive stresses
d) All of the above

A

Cracks in welds may be due to:
a) solidification problems
b) hydrogen problems
c) excessive stresses
d) All of the above

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9
Q

A large grain structure in steels is said to produce:
a) low ductility values
b) low fracture toughness values
c) high Fracture value values
d) low carbon steels

A

b) low fracture toughness values

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10
Q

An austenitic stainless steel may suffer from:
a) weld decay
b) sensitisation
c) solidification cracking
d) All of the above

A

a) weld decay
b) sensitisation
c) solidification cracking
d) All of the above

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11
Q

Which of the following metals has the highest thermal conductivity?
a) Carbon steel
b) Stainless steel
c) Aluminium
d) Cast iron

A

c) Aluminium

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12
Q

Carbon equivalent values are useful to determine.
a) the hardenability of a steel when welded
b) the crack sensitivity of a steel
c) typical mechanical properties
d) All of the above

A

a) the hardenability of a steel when welded
b) the crack sensitivity of a steel
c) typical mechanical properties
d) All of the above

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13
Q
  1. Lamellar tearing is caused by:

a) the choice of the welding process
b) the type of coaling on the welding electrode
c) poor ductility in the through thickness direction in the steel
d) excessive preheating

A

c) poor ductility in the through thickness direction in the steel

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14
Q

increasing the preheat temperature on a joint to be welded:
a) has no effect on the cooling rate
b) reduces the weld heat input
c) reduces the cooling rate
d) improves the arc efficiency

A

c) reduces the cooling rate

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15
Q
  1. Cast irons have carbon contents in the range -
    a) 0.8 - 1.7 %
    b) 0 - 1,7 %
    c) 1.7 - 4,5 %
    d) 4.5 - 6.7 %
A

c) 1.7 - 4,5 %

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16
Q

An un-stabilised stainless steel with a carbon content of 0.15% has been welded. What heat treatment could be applied to prevent weld decay in service?
a) Stress relief at 650°C followed by a furnace cool
b) Stress relief al 650°C followed by a quench
c) Solution treatment at 1100°C followed by a furnace cool
d) Solution treatments at 1100°C followed by a rapid cool

A

d) Solution treatments at 1100°C followed by a rapid cool

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16
Q
  1. Stabilised austenitic stainless steels such as Type 347 do not become sensitized as a result of welding operations because:
    a) they have very low carbon contents that minimises carbide precipitation
    b) they contain elements such as niobium that combine with the carbon
    c) they have a higher than average chromium content
    d) they are always supplied in the solution annealed condition
A

b) they contain elements such as niobium that combine with the carbon

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17
Q
  1. On the DeLong diagram, the amount of ferrite is indicated by -
    a) the nickel equivalent
    b) the ferrite number
    c) the chromium equivalent
    d) It is not indicated on the DeLong diagram
A

b) the ferrite number

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18
Q
  1. The top flange of a beam with a load in the centre of the span is:

a) in tension
b) in shear
c) neutral
d) in compression

A

d) in compression

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19
Q
  1. Pressure vessels are designed:
    a) for carrying large quantities of water
    b) for transporting petrol
    c) for holding liquids which are subject to low and high temperatures
    d) to operate safely at a specific pressure and temperature.
A

d) to operate safely at a specific pressure and temperature.

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20
Q
  1. Which element has the greatest influence on the occurrence of hydrogen cracking in steel?
    a) Nickel
    b) Manganese
    c) Vanadium
    d) Carbon
A

d) Carbon

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21
Q
  1. The most common type of failure associated with sharp fillets, notches and undercut is:
    a) crystallisalion
    b) fatigue
    c) corrosion
    d) brittle fracture
A

b) fatigue

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22
Q

. The percentage elongation of a metal undergoing a tensile test is a measure of:
a) Elasticity
b) plasticity
c) ductility
d) malleabillty

A

c) ductility

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23
Q

A macro section of a lee bult joint shows a step-like defect lying outside the visible HAZ. What is the most likely cause of this defect?
a) Heat affected zone cracking
b) Toe cracking
c) A lamination
d) Lamellar tearing

A

d) Lamellar tearing

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24
Q

CTOD Tests can be described as a form of:
a) impact test
b) tensile test
c) bend lest
d) creep test

A

a) impact test

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25
Q
  1. When depositing weld metal, melting will take place at the sides of the joint resulting in an mixture of weld metal and parent metal. This alloying effect is known as:
    a) Diffusion
    b) absorption
    c) dilution
    d) migration
A

c) dilution

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26
Q
  1. How are residual stresses relieved in welded joints?
    a) By bending the meta back and forth
    b) By drilling holes in non structural areas
    c) By heating the meta to a designated temperature, then quenching in water
    d) By heating the metal to a designated temperature then cooling uniformly
A

d) By heating the metal to a designated temperature then cooling uniformly

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27
Q
  1. What parameters are valid when specifying joint design?
    a) Dimensions
    b) Welding sequence
    c) Configuration
    d) All of the above
A

a) Dimensions
b) Welding sequence
c) Configuration
d) All of the above

28
Q
  1. Stress is equal to:
    a) the applied load
    b) the applied load divided by the cross sectional area.
    c) the cross sectional area divided by applied load
    d) the applied load divided by two.
A

b) the applied load divided by the cross sectional area.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a mechanical property?
    a) Strength
    b) Thermal conductivity
    c) Toughness
    d) Hardness
A

b) Thermal conductivity

29
Q

The amount of energy absorbed by a impact specimen, when struck by the pendulum during a Charpy V notch impact test, is a measure of what material property?
a) The fatigue strength of the material
b) The yield strength of the material
c) The toughness of the material
d) The elongation of the material

A

c) The toughness of the material

30
Q

What is the percent elongation of a specimen which has a gauge length of 50mm and a final length after testing of 65mm?
a) 33%
b) 30%
c) 3 %
d) 130%

A

B

31
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot be determined by a tensile test?
    a) Ductility
    b) Ultimate tensile strength
    c) Impact properties
    d) Weld soundness
A

d) Weld soundness

32
Q
  1. When the test temperature of steel notch impact test specimens is lowered, the notch impact values tend to be:
    a) higher
    b) the same as at higher temperatures
    c) lower
    d) variable
A

c) lower

33
Q
  1. Destructive testing is commonly used to:
    a) quality welders and procedures
    b) check all production parts
    c) evaluate material performance
    d) a and c
A

d) a and c

34
Q

. When welds need repair, to whom should this be reported?
a) To the welder whose stamp is on the weld.
b) To another better trained welder,.
c) To the welding foreman or supervisor.
d) To the project engineer.

A

c) To the welding foreman or supervisor.

35
Q

Which of the following is most helpful in performing inspection duties?
a) Being informed, impartial, and consistent.
b) Being close friends with welders and superiors.
c) Having past welding experience.
d) Being tidy, well organised and a good timekeeper

A

a) Being informed, impartial, and consistent.

36
Q
  1. In the CTOD lest, what is meant by the term ‘pop-in? a. b.
    a) Brittle fracture occurs
    b) Ductile fracture occurs
    c) No fractures occur
    d) When the brittle fracture initiates, but only propagates a short distance before it is arrested
A

a) Brittle fracture occurs

37
Q

What joint fit up should be insisted on by the inspector?

a) The tolerances should be as specified on the drawings or specifications.
b) A tight fit of butt joints, to preserve the dimensions of the fabrication to be welded
c) Whatever weld gap is achieved, if not obviously too large to suit the welder.
d) The tolerances given by the welding supervisor.

A

a) The tolerances should be as specified on the drawings or specifications.

38
Q

What is a mandatory hold point?
a) The location where a section must be supported.
b) A point in the fabrication programme when witnessing or examination is required by an authorized inspector/client.
c) A point in the fabrication programme which is structurally critical and must be extra strong.
d) When NDT is performed on a weld in a fabrication

A

b) A point in the fabrication programme when witnessing or examination is required by an authorized inspector/client.

39
Q

When carrying out a visual examination of welded structures, what knowledge should the inspector have in order to be proficient with this type of inspection?
a) Knowledge of the application standard being used.
b) Knowledge of the welding procedures.
c) Knowledge of the welder’s qualifications.
d) All of the above.

A

a) Knowledge of the application standard being used.
b) Knowledge of the welding procedures.
c) Knowledge of the welder’s qualifications.
d) All of the above.

40
Q

On a stress-strain diagram, the most important point are:
a) the slope of the elastic part of the diagram
b) the strength variation during elongation.
c) the yield point and the ultimate tensile strength
d) the time of flight

A

c) the yield point and the ultimate tensile strength

41
Q
  1. ISO 15614 refers to which of the following?

a) Welder approval testing
b) Welding equipment
c) Welding procedure approval
d) Consumables for welding

A

c) Welding procedure approval

42
Q

. Under normal contract conditions, welding procedure approval tests for pipe work are:
a) mandatory
b) dependant on site and weather conditions
c) dependant upon the contractor’s confidence in his procedures
d) only required when shielded metal arc welding is used.

A

a) mandatory

43
Q

Which organization publishes the most widely used manufacturing code for boiler and pressure vessel welding?
a) The American Welding Society
b) The American Society of Mechanical Engineers
c) The American Petroleum Institute
d) The American National Standards Institute

A

b) The American Society of Mechanical Engineers

44
Q

Why do manufacturing or construction personnel require copies of welding procedures and welder qualification reports?
a) To maintain accurate files
b) To better understand company policy
c) To ensure that all welding is performed using approved methods and techniques

A

c) To ensure that all welding is performed using approved methods and techniques

45
Q

. Why do quality control personnel require copies of welding procedures and welder qualification reports?
a) To measure the results of welding operations
b) To produce product quality
c) To improve field and production inspection techniques
d) To avoid field and production inspection

A

b) To produce product quality

46
Q

Revised welding procedure specifications, which require re-qualification:
a) must be re qualified prior to use
b) must have a revision number assigned
c) must be communicated to all relevant welding and inspection personnel
d) All of the above

A

welding and inspection personnel
d) All of the above

47
Q

Which of the following is the responsibility of the welding inspector?
a) Selection of the welding procedure for producing welds
b) Supervision of welding operations
c) Reporting the resuits of production inspections
d) Building quality into the welded fabrication

A

c) Reporting the resuits of production inspections

48
Q

Welding progression applies to which welding position? a.
a) Flat
b) Vertical
c) Horizontal
d) Overhead

A

b) Vertical

49
Q

Written welding procedures which do not require qualification by test are:
a) referred to as qualified welding procedures
b) accepted by all codes
c) required to be radiographed
d) referred to as pre qualified procedures

A

d) referred to as pre qualified procedures

50
Q

The reliability of pre-qualified welding procedures is based upon:
a) destructive testing to prove quality
b) non-destructive testing to prove quality
c) past successful experience using the welding variables specified in the code
d) previously qualified company procedure

A

c) past successful experience using the welding variables specified in the code

51
Q

The ability of a liquid penetrant to penetrate into defects or between closely fitted surfaces is called:
a) Absorption
b) capillary action
c) micro action
d) dye action

A

b) capillary action

51
Q

Base metals specified in a welding procedure can be:
a) in accordance with ASME
b) in accordance with ASTM
c) in accordance with API
d) all of the above

A

) in accordance with ASME
b) in accordance with ASTM
c) in accordance with API
d) all of the above

51
Q

Filler metals are normally specified and classified by:
a) The American Petroleum Institute
b) The American Society for Testing and Materials
c) The American Welding Society
d) The American Institute for Steel Construction

A

c) The American Welding Society

52
Q

What is the most popular and portable method of applying liquid penetrant? a.
a) Brushing
b) Dipping
c) Spraying
d) Pouring

A

c) Spraying

53
Q

Which non-destructive test method uses a penetrameter?
a) Radiographic inspection
b) Ultrasonic inspection
c) Liquid penetrant inspection
d) Magnetic particle inspection

A

a) Radiographic inspection

54
Q
  1. What type(s) of magnetic field does an MT yoke produce?

a) Circular and square
b) Circular and longitudinal
c) Circular only
d) Longitudinal only

A

d) Longitudinal only

54
Q

When a weld or welded fabrication is magnetized using the MT method, any crack that exists in the fabrication will form:
a) north poles on the sides of the crack
b) south poles on the sides of the crack
c) neither north nor south poles
d) north and south poles

A

d) north and south poles

55
Q

What are the two types of magnetic fields?
a) Longitudinal and round
b) Circular and square
c) Longitudinal and circular
d) Longitudinal and square

A

c) Longitudinal and circular

56
Q

When evaluating magnetic particle patterns, the inspector should:
a) base decisions on applicable specifications, procedures or codes
b) rely an one’s better judgment and experience
c) talk and confer with engineers
d) All of the above

A

a) base decisions on applicable specifications, procedures or codes

57
Q
  1. Radiographic inspection can detect defects:
    a) on the surface
    b) below the surface
    c) on and below the surface
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

58
Q
  1. In radiographic inspection, what is used to measure the density of a film?
    a) An oscilloscope
    b) A densitometer
    c) An ammeter
    d) A light meter
A

b) A densitometer

58
Q

What non-destructive testing method would likely be applied to the completed main weld seams of
Carbon steel pressure vessels?
a) Penetrant testing
b) Eddy current testing
c) Radiographic testing
d) Visual testing

A

c) Radiographic testing

59
Q
  1. Which radioactive isotope is mast commonly used in industrial radiography?
    a) Hafnium 50
    b) Iridium 192
    c) Cobalt 20
    d) Indium 192
A

b) Iridium 192

60
Q
  1. What is the purpose of couplants in ultrasonic testing?,
    a) To prevent corrosion on parts
    b) To eliminate outside noise
    c) They are used in immersion Testing
    d) To eliminate the air gap between the probe and the part being tested.
A

d) To eliminate the air gap between the probe and the part being tested.

61
Q

The main limitation of ultrasonic testing is that:
a) it takes a highly trained and skilled operator
b) it is expensive to perform
c) the results of the testing is not very accurate
d) it is both expensive and inaccurate

A

a) it takes a highly trained and skilled operator

62
Q

Most ultrasonic testing on steel products and welds is done with sound frequencies between:
a) 1 and 50 kHz
b) 20 and 100 kHz
c) 1 and 10 MHz
d) 10 and 100 kHz

A

c) 1 and 10 MHz

63
Q

The advantage of ultrasonic testing for the examination of welds is that: a. b.
a) it can be used to locate flaws
b) it can be used to size flaws
c) it has a high sensitivity to planar flaws
d) All-of the above

A

d) All-of the above

SAIW QC Level 2 (22 decks)

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