Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Alan's Microbiology Exam 1 > Exam One > Flashcards

Exam One Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Clostridium perfringens diagnosis

A

Gram pos rods, obligate anaerobe, beta hemolytic, detect toxins in food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoae diag

A

Gram neg diplococci, gram stain of urethral discharge on Thayer-Martin media in men, PCR and nucleic acid amplification in men and women, grows on chocolate agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

ASO test

A

Detects strep O confirming a recent GAS infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rickettsi r. diagnosis

A

Gram neg, obligate intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Entamoeba histolytica diagnosis

A

Trophozoites in stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T. gondi treatment

A

Sulfa drugs for CNA infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Shigella diagnosis

A

Gram neg rods, oxidase neg, non motile, non lactose fermenter, stool culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EIEC disease

A

Mucoid diarrhea (1-3 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

GAS disease

A

Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, impetigo, necrotizing faciitis, TSS, sequelae of rheumatic fever, (glomerulonephritis, RBC’s and protein in urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

H. flu treatment

A

Ampicillin, cephalosporins, type b vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae treatment

A

Azithromycin (any macrolide), doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Entamoeba histolytica treatment

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vibrio diagnosis

A

Gram neg rods, LPS antigen serotypes, cholera toxin in cholerae, seafood in others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Strep pneumonia diagnosis

A

Catalse negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa pathology

A

ExoA toxin, biofilms, CF patients, burn victims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enterococcus f. pathology

A

biofilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bactrim

A

Folic acid synthesis and utilization inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Yersinia pestis disease

A

buboes, fever, chills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rickettsia r. disease

A

spotted rash from per. to trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Taeniae solium

A

Tapeworm, undercooked pork, cysts and inflammation in brain, eyes, muscle, weight loss, praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

GAS treatment

A

Penicillin V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cryptosporidium disease and treatement

A

mild diarrhea, no treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Use for extended spec pennicilins

A

Increased gram neg, UTI’s otitis media, comm. pneumonia, H. Flu, Listeria, Lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T. gondi strucutre

A

Coccidian (non motile), intracellular, rising antibody titers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chloramphenicol use and side effect

A

Aplastic anemia (protein synth inhibitor), RMSF if you can’t use tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treponema pallidum is:

A

Syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Extended spec pennicilins

A

Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, Pipericillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Suflonamides and use

A

Folic acid inhibitors, no anaerobes, good for otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, shigella, salmonella, e. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Staph epidermis disease

A

Catheter/joint infections, endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis pathology

A

granulomatous inflammation and giant cells, infects macrophages and prevents fusion of vesicles to lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T. gondi disease

A

Fevers, mimics mono, encephalitis in aids patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Schistosoma mansoni (everything)

A

Fluke, snails and mollusks, intravascular parasite, swimmers itch, hepatosplenomegaly, praziquantel, portal vein blockage due to egg reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Legionella pneumophilia diseases

A

Legionnaires, Pontiac lever (self limited flu like illness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

NonTB mycobacteria disease

A

Pulmonary disease, weight loss (avium), cutaneous infections (marinum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

EAEC pathology

A

Biofilm and enterotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

H pylori treatement

A

multiple antibiotics and proton pump inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enterococcus f. diagnosis

A

Gram pos cocci in long chains, alpha hemolytic, bile-esculin positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

G. lamblia treatment

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Borellia burgdorferi is:

A

Lyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Giardia lamblia pathology

A

Beavers, attaches to intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Penicillin drug of choice?

A

Strep, Syphillis, Pneumococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

C. trachomatis disease

A

same as gonnorhea, wihout pharyngitis or DGI, but plus neonatal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Y. pestis treatment

A

streptomycin (aminoglycoside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

C. trachomatis pathology

A

EB enters cells, RB replicates, no immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bordetella pertussis treatement

A

Erythromycin, any macrolide, DTaP vaccine, prophylaxis for contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vancomycin

A

D-ala-D-ala interference, no gram neg coverage, red man syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

E coli strucutre

A

Gram neg rods, oxidase neg, lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Doxycyclin

A

Use against odd ones, such as Lyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Legionella pneumophilia treatment

A

Azithromycin (any macrolide) or levofloxacin (any fluoroquinolone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

1st gen cephalosporin use

A

UTI’s, resp infections, surgical proph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

GAS pathology

A

Exotoxins, C5a peptidase, M protein, hyaluronidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

H pylori patholgoy

A

VacA erodes epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Plasmodium sp. treatment

A

Fluoroquinolones, doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Legionella Pneumophilia diagnosis

A

Gram neg coccobacilli, test for urine antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

H pylori disease

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Macrolides names and effect

A

Azithromycin (Z-pak), Clarithromycin, clindamycin, erythromycin, bacteriostatic (protein trans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

B. cereus treatment

A

rehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T. pallidum treatment

A

Penicillin G, doxycyline in allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Clostridium perfringens treatment

A

Rehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea treatment

A

Single dose cefriaxone, azithro for chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PSeudomonas aeruginosa treatement

A

Test for sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

GBS diagnosis

A

catalase negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Borellia burgdorferi treatment

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

B fragilis disease

A

abcesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Plasmodium sp. pathology

A

Mosquitos, falciparum is 95% of deaths, life cycle step 1: sporozoites enter the liver, step 2: merozots invade RBC’s (Ovale and Vivax have dormant stages), erythrocytic phase - infected RBC’s become deformed, anemia and jaudice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

EAEC disease

A

Watery diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Mycobacterium leprae treatment

A

Rifampicin, dapsone, clofazimine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Rickettsi r. pathology

A

Vasc endothelial cells, cell cell spread using actin, lekage of RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Plasmodium sp. disease

A

High fever, chills, rigor, anemia, spiking periodic fevers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

G. lamblia disease

A

Steatorrhea, foul smelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Borellia burgdorferi pathology

A

Tick blood meal, OspC, Salp15 evasion, tick, mouse, lizards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa diseases

A

Pulmonary infections, hot tub folliculitis, otitis externa, corneal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

B fragilis treatement

A

metronidazole, oral vanco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Step pneumonia pathology

A

CbpA for capsule mediated inhibition of clearance, often after viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Entamoeba histolytica disease

A

cysts infectious, flask shaped ulcers, colon lesions, bloody stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

GBS diseasse

A

Maternal fetal, GI and urogenital, UTI, sepsis, meningitis, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tetracyclin side effects

A

discolored teeth, GI upset, phototoxic dermatitis, dont use in pregnant or children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Giant cells

A

Think granulomatous inflammation or foreign body rxn

58
Q

Neisseria meningitidis disease

A

Meningococcemia (sepsis, petechiae, purpurae), Meningitis

58
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides (everything)

A

Giant roundworm, mebendazole

59
Q

Aminoglycosides and effect

A

Streptomycin, gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin, neomycin, spectinomycin, bactericidal (exceptions to the bacteriostatic non-cell wall antibiotics rule)

60
Q

Salmonella treatment

A

Rehydration

61
Q

Enterococcus treatment

A

ampicillin, cephalosporins

62
Q

Plasmodium species?

A

Falciparum, vivax, ovale, malariae

63
Q

Penicillinase-resistant uses

A

Strep

64
Q

T. pallidum disease

A

Chancre, macular papular rash, tertiary disease (gummas, CTAA, meningovascular neuro, tabes dorsales)

65
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae diagnosis

A

No cell wall, serology test

66
Q

TTSS

A

Effector molecules, fromote uptake of bacteria

67
Q

E coli treatment

A

Rehydration

69
Q

H pylori diagnosis

A

Gram neg rod, urease breath, host antibodies

71
Q

2nd gen ceph. use

A

Otitis media, H flu, resp infection, UTI’s

73
Q

B. Cereus diagnosis

A

Gram pos rods, catalase pos, beta hemolytic, motile, detect toxins in food

74
Q

B. cereus disease

A

Quick or medium vomiting and diarrhea

75
Q

Rickettsia rickettsi treatement

A

tetracycline, chloramphenicol for preg women and children, fluoroquinolones

75
Q

Rifampin effect and side effect

A

Orange urine, nucleic acid inhibitor

76
Q

Quinolones and effect

A

Levofloxcin, norfloxacin, ciprofloxacin, targets DNA gyrase

77
Q

Tetracycline use

A

Lyme, mycoplasms, chlamydia, acne

79
Q

Gram pos rods

A

C diff, B. cereus

80
Q

NonTB mycobacteria treatment

A

Multidrug, prophylaxis for HIV patients

81
Q

T. gondi pathology

A

Undercooked meat, litterbox, transplacentally passed, 50% of population

83
Q

Cefazoline

A

1st gen cephalosporin used for surgical prophylaxis

84
Q

Tetracycline and effect

A

Doxycycline, bacteriostatic

86
Q

Gram negative cocci

A

Neisseriae

87
Q

Neisseria gonorrheae pathology

A

Pilli and Opa protein attachment, LPS, Por protein

89
Q

Clostridium perfringens disease

A

Gas gangrene, medium diarrhea and vomiting

90
Q

EPEC disease

A

Severe diarrhea and vomiting

91
Q

Neisseria gonorrheae disease

A

Men: Urethritis, epididymitis, Women: Cervicitis, PID, Dysuria-pyuria, Fitzhugh-Curtis, Both: Conjunctivitis, DGI, Reiter’s

93
Q

Yersinia pestis diag

A

Gram neg, safety pin, fluorescent antibody test

93
Q

Gram pos cocci

A

Strep, staph, enterococcus

94
Q

EIEC pathology

A

Actin movement, chronic diarrhea

95
Q

Protein A

A

Prevents opsonization by binding antibody to the bacterial surface in wrong orientation

96
Q

C diff disease

A

watery diarrhea, toxic megacolon, psuedomembranes

97
Q

Treponema pallidum diagnosis

A

Spirochete, motile, darkfield microscopy, screening and confirmatory, assay for anti cardiolipin antibodies, immunity lost after treatment

99
Q

Borellia burgorderi diagnosis

A

Spirochete, flagella, ELISA test, Western blot, PCR

100
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa structure

A

Gram neg rod, aerobe, capsule

102
Q

Campylobacter dissease

A

blood diarrhea (long), Guillain Barre

103
Q

B cereus pathology

A

ingestion of cereulide toxin or organisms

104
Q

GBS treatment

A

Penicillin G

104
Q

Campylobacter jejuni diagnosis

A

Gram neg rods (s shaped), oxidase pos, catalase pos, stool culture

106
Q

H. flu structure and diagnosis

A

Gram neg coccobacilli, blood agar and NAD plate

107
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis treatment

A

Isonazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinmide, latent infection treated with 9 months isoniazid or 6 months rifampin, BCG vaccine in other countries

108
Q

Bordetella pertussis diagnosis

A

Fluorescent antibody test

108
Q

Salmonella diagnosis

A

Gram neg rods, oxidase neg, non lactose fermenter

109
Q

V. vulnificus disease

A

Wound infection in seawater

110
Q

H flu disease

A

Otitis media, pneumonia (non-capsule), meningitis (capsule)

111
Q

Neisseria menigitidis treatment

A

Penicillin, 3rd gen cephalosporin, vaccine for children, prophylaxis for close contact

112
Q

Campylobacter treatment

A

Rehydration

113
Q

What do cephalosporins not cover

A

Enterococci, among others

115
Q

O antigen

A

Chains of linked sugars that resist membrane attack complex

117
Q

EHEC pathology

A

Shiga toxin

119
Q

Enterobius vermicularis (everything)

A

Pinworm, anal region, itching, albendazole or mebendazole for whole family

121
Q

EHEC disease

A

Blood diarrhea and HUS, 6-18 hrs

122
Q

Macrolide uses

A

Pneumonia, atypicals (legionella, mycoplasma, chlamydia), used if allergic to penicillin

124
Q

C diff pathology

A

TcdA and TcdB, disrupt tight junctions

126
Q

Neisseria meningitidis structure

A

gram neg diplococci

127
Q

Salmonella patholgoy

A

crosses M cells, epithelial cells, typhoidal and non-typhoidal strains, pets

128
Q

Bactrim use

A

Uncomplicated UTI’s, good for gram negs

130
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia pathology

A

Destroys cilia

131
Q

Strep pneumoniae treatment

A

Amoxicillin/clavulate, azithro, vanco, vaccine for children and elderly

133
Q

Nontuberculous mycobacteria diag/path

A

Acid fast, hot tubs or milk (avium), fish tanks (marinium)

133
Q

Aminoglycoside use

A

once a day dosing of CF patients, serious gram negative infections

134
Q

EPS

A

biofilm formation

135
Q

H flu pathology

A

type b capsule (some strains)

135
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis disease

A

scant discharge in women, asymptomatic men

137
Q

C diff diagnosis

A

Gram pos rods, anaerobe, toxin in stool

138
Q

3rd gen ceph. use

A

Hospital acquired infections, CNS, gonococcal

139
Q

GAS diagnosis

A

Catalse negative, beta hemolytic, bacitrcin sensitive, ASO test

141
Q

Mycobacterium leprae disease

A

skin lesions, nerve damage, multibacillary/lepromatous disease (many bacteria, few lymphocytes, severe tissue damage), paucibacillary/tuberculoid (few bacteria, many lymphocytes, less severe)

142
Q

Staph epidermis diagnosis

A

Coagulase negative

143
Q

Diptheria toxin

A

Inhibits protein synthesis, A-B toxin

144
Q

Neisseria meningitidis pathology

A

sialic acid capsule, affects those with complement deficiency

145
Q

Proteases

A

Cleave Fc portion of IgA

146
Q

Aminoglycoside side effects

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

147
Q

Clostridium perfringens patholgoy

A

Type A enterotoxin or organisms

147
Q

Cryptosporidium strucutre

A

coccidian (non motile)

148
Q

Neisseria meningitidis diagnosis

A

chocolate agar, purple with oxidase regent (oxidase positive)

150
Q

Salmonella disease

A

Gastroenteritis (long), typhoid fever (rose spots)

151
Q

Borellia burgdorferi disease

A

Bulls eye rash, bells palsy, late disseminated lyme (joints, ataxia, memory loss)

152
Q

Metronidazole

A

Flagyl, catericidal, always a good choice for anaerboes, nucleic acid synth inhbitor

153
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis diagnosis

A

Trophozoite, most common STD

154
Q

Carbapenem

A

Inhibits PBP’s as well, last resort for E. Coli and Klebsiella, penetrate the OprD porins of gram negative rods

155
Q

B fragilis pathology

A

discrete areas of infection

156
Q

M protein

A

Antiphagocytic activity

157
Q

Augmentin

A

Amoxicillin (beta lactam) with clavulonic acid (beta lactamase inhibitor)

159
Q

Bordetella pertussis structure

A

Gram neg coccobacilli, aerobe

161
Q

C. trachomatis treatment

A

single dose azithro or 7 day regimen of doxycycline

162
Q

C diff treatment

A

metronidazole, oral vanco

164
Q

Staph aureus pathology

A

Alpha toxin, TSST, exfoliative toxin, enterotoxin, MecA gene for altered PBP

166
Q

Enterococcus f. diseases

A

UTI, bacteremia, PIDs, intrabdominal infections

167
Q

EPEC pathology

A

Pedestal formation, infantile diarrhea

168
Q

Shigella pathology

A

M cells, actin cell to cell, Shiga toxin, daycare centers

169
Q

Bordetella pertussis pathology

A

Pertussis toxin

171
Q

Bordetella pertussis disease

A

Whooping cough, catarrhal, paroxysmal, convalescent stage

172
Q

Cryptosporidium pathology

A

farm animals, water parks, severe in AIDS

174
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii is:

A

RMSF

175
Q

GBS pathology

A

Sialic avid capsule

176
Q

Mycobacterium leprae diagnosis

A

Acid fast, no culture, history, exam, biopsy, cooler temperatures

177
Q

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis diagnosis

A

Acid fast stain, non motile rods, PPD, interferron gamma release test, fluorochrome stain, false neg in HIV

178
Q

Shigella treatment

A

Fluoroquinolone

179
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis disease

A

primary infection (alveolar macrophages, lymph nodes, bloodstream), reactivation in upper lobes with caseous necrosis, chills, fatigue, weight loss

180
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae disease

A

Walking pneumonia

182
Q

Strep pneumoniae diseases

A

Sinusitis, otitis media, lobar pneumonia, meningitis

183
Q

Shigella disease

A

bloody diarrhea long term

184
Q

T. vaginalis treatment

A

Metronidazole

185
Q

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins

A

Methicillin, oxacillin, naficillin

186
Q

ETEC pathology

A

Cholera like toxin, traveler’s diarrhea

187
Q

ETEC disease

A

Watery diarrhea (6-18 hrs)

188
Q

Staph aureus treatment

A

Oxacillin/Vancomycin (resistance)

189
Q

Staph aureus Disease

A

Scalded Skin, food poisoning, TSS, pneumonia, impetigo

190
Q

Enterococcus faecalis vs. faecum

A

Faecalis common, faecium virulent

191
Q

Staph epidermis treatment

A

Methicillin or vancomycin (resistant)

192
Q

B fragilis diagnosis

A

Gram neg rod, anaerobe, bile-esculin growth

193
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis diagnosis

A

gram neg bacilli, grows on living tissue, nucleic acid amplification, serotypes A-C(trachoma), D-K(urogenital), L1-L3 (venereum)

Alan's Microbiology Exam 1 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions