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SAIW QC Level 2 > exam -mc Paper 1 > Flashcards

exam -mc Paper 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When compared to carbon steel, heat will move through austenitic stainless steel?

a. faster
b. slower
c. at the same rate
d. faster or slower depending upon the heat input

A

b. slower

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2
Q

Austenitic stainless steels are often given the designation ‘18/8’: What does ‘18/8’ mean?

a 18% Ni / 8% Cr
b 18% Mo / 8% Nb
c 18% Cr / 8% Ni
d 18% CT / 8% N

A

c 18% Cr / 8% Ni

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3
Q

What would be the approximate range for chromium in a martensitic stainless steel?

a 11 % to 18%
b 8 % to 10 %
c 19 % to 30 %
d Below 9

A

a 11 % to 18%

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4
Q

The term t% is used to describe:

a. the time taken for a weld to cool from post weld stress relieving temperature to room temperature
b the time taken during cooling for a weld run and the HAZ to pass through the temperature range of 800°C to 500°C
c the time taken during cooling for a weld run and the HAZ to pass through the temperature range of 80°C to 50°C
d None of the above

A

b the time taken during cooling for a weld run and the HAZ to pass through the temperature range of 800°C to 500°C

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5
Q

Nickel alloys are mainly used where:

a High tensile strength is specified
b High temperature mechanical properties are specified
c Low temperature mechanical properties are specified
d Good wear resistance is specified

A

b High temperature mechanical properties are specified

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6
Q

Cast irons are mainly alloys of:

a iron and chromium
b silicon and carbon
c iron and carbon
d carbon and chromium

A

c iron and carbon

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7
Q
  1. The Schaeffler diagram is based on the equivalents of:

a chromium and titanium
b nickel and molybdenum
c nickel and chromium
d iron and chromium

A

c nickel and chromium

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8
Q

A TMCP steel is produced by:

a. quenching the steel immediately after rolling
b normalising the steel immediately after rolling
c rolling at a controlled temperature during the final pass through the rolls
d cold rolling

A

c rolling at a controlled temperature during the final pass through the rolls

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9
Q
  1. When welding an austenitic stainless steel to carbon steel:

a .an austenitic weld metal should be used
b. a low hydrogen carbon steel weld metal should be used
c. a nickel alloy weld metal should be used
d. a or c can be used

A

d. a or c can be used

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10
Q
  1. What is the most important precaution to be taken to avoid defects when gas metal are or gas tungsten are welding aluminium and its alloys?

a. cleanliness
b. correct filler metal selection
c. correct shielding gas flow rate
d. correct welding parameters

A

a. cleanliness

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11
Q
  1. Aluminium alloys, in the aged condition, are difficult to weld because:

a.the oxide layer burns.
b. the melting point is too low
c. they can soften in the heat affected zone due to over-ageing
d. martensite forms in the heat affected zone

A

c. they can soften in the heat affected zone due to over-ageing

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12
Q
  1. Clad steels are produced by:

a. metal spraying
b. mill rolling two sheets of dissimilar metallic materials together
c. heat treatment
d. casting an ingot and then rolling.

A

b. mill rolling two sheets of dissimilar metallic materials together

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13
Q

13 Hydrogen or cold cracking can occur at temperatures:

a, between ambient temperature and 600°C
b. between -20°C and 100°C
c. between ambient temperature and 300°C
d. between 20°C and 100°C

A

c. between ambient temperature and 300°C

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14
Q
  1. To minimize hydrogen cracking in the shielded metal arc welding of carbon manganese steels, which of the following should be considered?

a. The use of preheat
b. The use of basic coated electrodes
c. The correct storage and issue of basic coated electrodes
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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15
Q
  1. The temperature range in which creep resistant steels are used is:

a.150°C to 350°C
b. 315°C to 540°C
c. 150°C to 450°C
d. 200°C to 300°C

A

b. 315°C to 540°C

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16
Q
  1. The type of alloy steels used when superior creep strength is required are:

a. nickel-chromium alloys
b. nickel-iron alloys
c. chromium-nickel alloys
d. chromium-molybdenum alloys

A

d. chromium-molybdenum alloys

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17
Q
  1. A fracture surface with stepped or ‘beach mark features is typical of:

a. ductile cracking
b. fatigue cracking
c. stress corrosion cracking
d. hydrogen cracking

A

B

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following could describe the plastic range of a metal?

a. The relation between a single stress and the corresponding strain in the plastic range is given by Hookes Law.
b. Stresses in the plastic range may cause large permanent deformations.
c. No permanent effect is produced by stresses within the plastic range.
d. The maximum strength in the plastic range is the yield strength.

A

b. Stresses in the plastic range may cause large permanent deformations.

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18
Q
  1. The moment of inertia of a section is used in calculating:

a. bending moments.
b. deflection in bending
c. the fatigue stress range
d. full plastic moment.

A

b. deflection in bending

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19
Q
  1. A welded steel pressure vessel with service temperature of 100°C maximum and 0°C minimum is loaded with varying internal pressures. Which is the most probable failure mechanism?

a. Сгеер
b. Fatigue
c. Ductile fracture
d. Brittle fracture

A

b. Fatigue

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20
Q
  1. On the DeLong diagram the amount of ferrite is indicated by:

a. the percent ferrite
b. the nickel equivalent
c. the ferrite number
d. the chromium equivalent

A

c. the ferrite number

21
Q
  1. For a structure working at low temperatures, attention should be paid to:

a. any decrease of yield strength
b. variation in the Young’s modulus
c. the risk of creep failure
d. the risk of brittle fracture

A

d. the risk of brittle fracture

22
Q
  1. Why are non-load carrying attachment welds important in a statically loaded structure?

a. They can affect the fatigue properties
b. They are normally welded on site
c. They can increase the load carrying capacity
d. They can introduce stress raisers

A

d. They can introduce stress raisers

23
Q
  1. Stress relieving of a welded joint will:

a. improve the fatigue life under all conditions
b. only improve the fatigue life when tensile stresses are presented in the fatigue cycle
c. only improve the fatigue life when compressive stresses are present in the fatigue cycle
d. Have no measurable effect on the fatigue life.

A

d. Have no measurable effect on the fatigue life.

24
Q
  1. For fatigue service conditions, which of the following should be avoided?

a. Flush ground, full penetration joint, welded from both sides
b. Full penetration joint, welded from both sides
c. Flush ground, full penetration joint, welded from one side
d. Full penetration joint with permanent backing strip

A

d. Full penetration joint with permanent backing strip

25
Q
  1. The purpose of a fatigue test is to provide:

A. information on the different chemical and physical characteristics of the material
b. information on the influence of high temperatures upon chemical and physical characteristics of the material
C. quantified information on material behaviour under dynamic loading conditions D. quantified information on material behavioUr under static loading conditions

A

C. quantified information on material behaviour under dynamic loading conditions

26
Q

27 The advantage of the assessment of fracture toughness of welded joints in comparison with impact testing is:

A. the lower cost of the fracture mechanics test.
B. the ability to determine critical weld defect sizes
C. the ability to carry out the tests at lower temperatures
D. that less material is necessary for testing

A

B. the ability to determine critical weld defect sizes

27
Q
  1. CTOD tests have proved useful:

a. only when the material behaves perfectly elastically
B. only when the steel is stronger than 500 N/mm
C. when there is crack tip plastic deformation before fracture
D. as an alternative to the Charpy test

A

C. when there is crack tip plastic deformation before fracture

28
Q
  1. If a V butt joint is replaced by an X butt joint:

A. the angular shrinkage increases
B. the transverse shrinkage increases
C. the weld becomes cheaper
D. the amount of weld metal increases

A

C. the weld becomes cheaper

29
Q

30.On site assessments for creep damage are done by:

A. radiographic testing
B. the replica technique
C. hardness Testing
d. strain gauging

A

B. the replica technique

30
Q
  1. The maximum reinforcement of a weld is determined by:

A. the applicable code
B. base metal thickness
C. operating temperature in some cases
D. all of the above

A

A. the applicable code

31
Q
  1. A fabrication procedure calls for the toes of filet welds lo be blended in by grinding. This is to influence:

A.HAZ cracking
B. fatigue life
C. impact resistance
D. yield strength

A

B. fatigue life

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a method of hardness testing steels?

A. Brinell
B. Rockwell
C. Vickers
D. Charpy

A

D. Charpy

33
Q
  1. The preferred type of bend test for a double vee groove butt weld, welded with the gas metal arc process, would be:

a. a guided bend
B. a root bend
C. a side bend
D. a face bend

A

C. a side bend

33
Q

34 The hardness of steel is closely related To its:

A. tensile strength
B. impact resistance
C. creep strength
d. electrical resistance

A

A. tensile strength

34
Q

36.What type of test is hardness testing generally considered to be?

a. A compression test
B. An indentation test
C. An impact test
D. A tension test

A

B. An indentation test

34
Q
  1. Which of the following destructive Tests is not normally required for weld procedure approval tests for carbon steels in accordance with ASME IX?

a. Face bend
B. Macro examination
C. Root bend
d. Tensile

A

B. Macro examination

35
Q
  1. Most ultrasonic testing is done with sound frequencies beTween:

A. 1 and 50 kHz
B. 20 and 100 kHz
C. 1 and 10 MhZ
D. 10 and 100 kHz

A

C. 1 and 10 MhZ

35
Q
  1. In ultrasonic testing, which of the following is always required?

A. A separate receiving transducer
B. High frequency sound
C. Double transducers
D. A low frequency sound

A

B. High frequency sound

36
Q
  1. In ultrasonic Testing, a coupling medium between the crystal surface of the probe and the test specimen is necessary because:

A. lubrication is required to minimise wear on the crystal
B. an air interface between the crystal and the surface would completely reflect the ultrasonic waves
C. the crystal will not vibrate if placed directly in contact with the surface the medium D. is necessary to complete the electrical circuit in the probe.

A

B. an air interface between the crystal and the surface would completely reflect the ultrasonic waves

37
Q
  1. Ultrasonic testing is a good non-destructive test method for the detection of:

A. changes in hardness of an item
B. fine porosity in thin wall gas tungsten arc weldments
C. surface cracks in a rough casting
D. lack of sidewall fusion in thick wall carbon steel weldments

A

D. lack of sidewall fusion in thick wall carbon steel weldments

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is a limitation of radiographic examination?

A. It provides volumetric inspection
B. It requires two-sided accessibility
C. It provides a permanent record
D. All of the above

A

B. It requires two-sided accessibility

39
Q
  1. What items of radiation monitoring equipment should an industrial radiographer use?

A. A film badge
B. A pocket dosimeter
C. A radiation survey meter
D. All of the above.

A

A. A film badge
B. A pocket dosimeter
C. A radiation survey meter
D. All of the above.

40
Q
  1. When radiographing a part, which contains a large crack, the crack will appear on the radiograph as:

A. a dark, intermittent line
B. a light, irregular line
C. either a dark or light line
D.a fogged area on the radiograph

A

A. a dark, intermittent line

41
Q
  1. The basic purpose of a penetrameter is to:

A. indicate quality of the radiographic technique
B. indicate the smallest discontinuity which can be shown by the radiographic technique being used
C.serve as a comparison standard for evaluating discontinuity size
D. all of the above

A

A. indicate quality of the radiographic technique

42
Q
  1. The density of a radiographic image refers to:

A. the thickness of the film
B. the thickness of the specimen
C. the weight of the film
D. the degree of film blackening

A

D. the degree of film blackening

43
Q
  1. A straight, dark line in the center of the film image of a weld would most likely be:

A. linear porosity
B. incomplete penetration
C. tungsten inclusions
D.a crack

A

B. incomplete penetration

44
Q
  1. Scattered radiation caused by any material, such as a wall or floor, on the film side of the specimen is referred to as:

A. primary scattering
B. undercut
C. reflected scattering
D. backscattered radiation

A

D. backscattered radiation

45
Q
  1. Inclusions in a weld will appear on a radiograph as

A. a dark spot
B. a light spot
C. a generalised grey area of varying contrast
D. either a dark or light spot depending on the relalive absorption ratio of the part material and the inclusion material.

A

D. either a dark or light spot depending on the relalive absorption ratio of the part material and the inclusion material.

46
Q
  1. Which of the following defects would be difficult to detect using radiography?

A. Lack of root fusion
B. Porosity
C. Undercut
D. Fine heat affected zone cracks

A

D. Fine heat affected zone cracks

47
Q
  1. On a radiograph of a weld, undercut would show as:

A. a light line
B. a dark line
C. transverse indications
D. The condition is undetectable

A

B. a dark line

SAIW QC Level 2 (22 decks)

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