Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why do most organizations monitor their network environment, according to the text?

A) To optimize network bandwidth usage
B) To understand typical activities
C) To increase employee productivity
D) To enforce company policies

A

To understand typical activities

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2
Q

What is the purpose of establishing a database of key risk indicators (KRIs) based on monitoring network activities, according to the text?

A) To optimize network performance
B) To improve customer satisfaction
C) To enhance employee training programs
D) To assess and manage potential risks

A

To assess and manage potential risks

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3
Q

What does a Key Risk Indicator (KRI) measure in the context of network activity?

A) Network downtime
B) Employee satisfaction
C) Normal range of specific network activity indicators
D) Customer engagement

A

Normal range of specific network activity indicators

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4
Q

What does it indicate when a Key Risk Indicator (KRI) exceeds its normal bounds in network monitoring?

A) Improved network efficiency
B) Potential security compromise (IOC)
C) Enhanced data encryption
D) Increased employee satisfaction

A

Potential security compromise (IOC)

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5
Q

What does an Indicator of Compromise (IOC) typically indicate in the context of cybersecurity?

A) A successful cybersecurity breach
B) Early stages of a potential attack
C) Routine network maintenance
D) Employee misconduct

A

Early stages of a potential attack

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6
Q

What is the primary purpose of predictive analysis in cybersecurity?

A) To recover data after an attack
B) To detect and respond to ongoing attacks
C) To discover an attack before it occurs
D) To assess network bandwidth usage

A

To discover an attack before it occurs

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7
Q

How does making an Indicator of Compromise (IOC) available contribute to cybersecurity efforts?

A) It ensures compliance with industry standards
B) It aids in predicting and preventing future attacks
C) It enhances network bandwidth utilization
D) It improves employee productivity metrics

A

It aids in predicting and preventing future attacks

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8
Q

What are the two primary categories of threat intelligence sources?

A) Corporate and personal
B) Internal and external
C) Open source and closed source
D) Active and passive

A

Open source and closed source

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9
Q

According to the text, what defines an “open source” in the context of threat intelligence?

A) Information available to the public without restrictions
B) Information accessible only to authorized personnel
C) Information sourced from government agencies
D) Information obtained through paid subscriptions

A

Information available to the public without restrictions

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10
Q

What are the primary concerns associated with public information sharing centers?

A) Compatibility with existing systems and software
B) Availability of skilled personnel
C) Privacy of shared information and speed of information sharing
D) Cost-effectiveness and return on investment

A

Privacy of shared information and speed of information sharing

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11
Q

What precaution should an organization take when sharing IOCs and attack details after being a victim of an attack?

A) Avoid sharing proprietary or sensitive information
B) Ensure all employees are aware of the incident
C) Implement stricter network security measures
D) Update software and hardware regularly

A

Avoid sharing proprietary or sensitive information

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12
Q

What does Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) technology facilitate in cybersecurity?

A) Human-to-human communication
B) Exchange of cyberthreat indicators via computer-to-computer communication
C) Secure data storage in the cloud
D) Real-time network monitoring

A

Exchange of cyberthreat indicators via computer-to-computer communication

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13
Q

How does Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) improve upon traditional email alerts in cybersecurity?

A) It reduces the number of alerts received
B) It enhances email encryption protocols
C) It automates the process of reading and reacting to alerts
D) It improves email server performance

A

It automates the process of reading and reacting to alerts

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14
Q

How do STIX and TAXII contribute to Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) in cybersecurity?

A) By facilitating the exchange of cyberthreat indicators
B) By providing encryption for sensitive data
C) By automating network monitoring processes
D) By improving incident response times

A

By facilitating the exchange of cyberthreat indicators

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15
Q

What is Structured Threat Information Expression (STIX) primarily used for in cybersecurity?

A) Encrypting sensitive data
B) Automating network monitoring
C) Exchanging cyberthreat intelligence
D) Enhancing employee training

A

Exchanging cyberthreat intelligence

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16
Q

How does STIX enhance the representation of threat information in cybersecurity?

A) By converting text-based reports into visual diagrams
B) By incorporating real-time threat feeds
C) By representing threat information using objects and relationships
D) By automating incident response procedures

A

By representing threat information using objects and relationships

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17
Q

What is TAXII primarily used for in cybersecurity?

A) Automating network monitoring
B) Securely exchanging cyberthreat intelligence over HTTPS
C) Encrypting sensitive data
D) Enhancing employee training

A

Securely exchanging cyberthreat intelligence over HTTPS

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18
Q

What is the primary purpose of a vulnerability database in cybersecurity?

A) Storing network configuration data
B) Tracking employee performance metrics
C) Maintaining customer service records
D) Managing known vulnerabilities and their exploitation details

A

Managing known vulnerabilities and their exploitation details

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19
Q

What are the primary tasks involved in securing endpoint computers?

A) Ensuring network connectivity, optimizing file storage, and installing updates
B) Confirming secure startup, protecting from attacks, and hardening for enhanced protection
C) Monitoring email usage, encrypting web traffic, and restricting social media access
D) Auditing system logs, analyzing network traffic, and managing user permissions

A

Correct answer: B) Confirming secure startup, protecting from attacks, and hardening for enhanced protection

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20
Q

Where is the BIOS typically located in a computer system?

A) On the hard drive
B) In the RAM
C) On the motherboard
D) In the processor

A

On the motherboard

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21
Q

What are the typical steps performed by the BIOS during a legacy boot process when the computer is powered on?

A) Connecting to the internet, updating antivirus definitions, and launching applications
B) Initializing hardware, performing Power-On Self-Test (POST), and locating the bootloader
C) Checking email, synchronizing system clocks, and optimizing memory usage
D) Authenticating user credentials, launching virtual machines, and scanning for malware

A

Initializing hardware, performing Power-On Self-Test (POST), and locating the bootloader

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22
Q

What is the initial function performed by the BIOS when a computer is powered on?

A) Initializing network connections
B) Testing computer components with POST
C) Loading operating system files
D) Encrypting hard drive data

A

Testing computer components with POST

23
Q

After completing the Power-On Self-Test (POST), what does the BIOS typically do next during the boot process?

A) Load device drivers
B) Authenticate user credentials
C) Reference the Master Boot Record (MBR)
D) Check for operating system updates

A

Reference the Master Boot Record (MBR)

24
Q

What role does the partition table play in the computer’s boot process?

A) Authenticates user credentials
B) Loads device drivers
C) Instructs the BIOS where to locate the operating system (OS)
D) Executes antivirus scans

A

Instructs the BIOS where to locate the operating system (OS)

25
Q

Discuss the advantages of storing BIOS contents in flash memory for computer systems. How does this capability facilitate the updating of BIOS firmware and the addition of new features?

A

Computer systems stored BIOS contents in flash memory for easy updates, enabling firmware updates to add new features.

26
Q

Describe the purpose of UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) and explain how it improves upon BIOS by providing enhanced functionality.

A

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) was developed to replace BIOS, adding enhanced functionality

27
Q

List 5 enhancements that UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) offers over BIOS, and briefly explain how each enhancement improves system performance or functionality

A

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) offers numerous enhancements over BIOS, such as supporting hard drives larger than two terabytes (TB), unlimited primary partitions, quicker boot times, and built-in networking for remote troubleshooting. It also features a more advanced user interface for configuration and information.

28
Q

Discuss the cybersecurity threat posed by BIOS attacks. Explain how threat actors could exploit vulnerabilities in BIOS updates to infect the BIOS with malware.

A

Updating the BIOS in firmware also introduced the risk of BIOS attacks, where threat actors could create malware to infect the BIOS.

29
Q

BIOS attack

A

exploit the update feature of the BIOS

30
Q

Describe why BIOS attacks are difficult to detect and disinfect once a computer’s BIOS has been infected.

A

Since the BIOS resides in firmware, an infected BIOS could persistently re-infect the computer each time it was powered on, making BIOS attacks challenging to detect and disinfect

31
Q

UEFI, used along with other components, is designed to

A

combat these BIOS vulnerabilities and provide improved boot security

32
Q

What is the primary objective of validating each element used in every step of the boot process in terms of boot security?

A) Ensuring compatibility with peripheral devices
B) Enhancing graphical user interface (GUI) responsiveness
C) Preventing unauthorized modifications to system components
D) Optimizing memory allocation

A

C) Preventing unauthorized modifications to system components

Explanation:
Boot security involves validating that each element used in each step of the boot process has not been modified to prevent unauthorized alterations to critical system components. This ensures the integrity and security of the system during startup.

33
Q

chain of trust

A

This process starts with validating the initial element (boot software). After confirming its integrity, it proceeds to validate subsequent items (like software drivers) until control is transferred to the operating system.

34
Q

how does of chain of trust work

A

each element relies on the confirmation of the previous element to know that the entire process is secure

35
Q

What is the term used to describe the starting point of security checks beginning with hardware?
A) Root of Modification
B) Root of Trust
C) Chain of Attestation
D) Trustworthy Software

A

Root of Trust

36
Q

According to the text, why is hardware considered the strongest starting point for security?
A) It is easy to modify
B) It cannot be verified
C) It is permanently fixed
D) It provides a hardware root of trust

A

It provides a hardware root of trust

37
Q

What does “boot attestation” refer to in the context of the text?
A) Verification of software integrity
B) Initialization of hardware components
C) The process of checking the OS
D) Relying on hardware verification

A

Relying on hardware verification

38
Q

How does each subsequent security check rely upon hardware in the described process?
A) It validates the OS first
B) It begins with software checks
C) It starts with hardware verification
D) It modifies the hardware

A

It starts with hardware verification

39
Q

What is the primary benefit of starting security checks with hardware, as mentioned in the text?
A) It ensures software modification
B) It establishes a chain of trust
C) It simplifies the validation process
D) It avoids hardware verification

A

It establishes a chain of trust

40
Q

Legacy BIOS Boot

A

Uses BIOS for boot functions

41
Q

advantages of Legacy BIOS boot

A

Compatible with older systems

42
Q

disadvantages of Legacy BIOS boot

A

No security features

43
Q

UEFI Native Mode

A

Uses UEFI standards for boot functions

44
Q

advantages of UEFI native mode

A

Security boot modules can be patched or updated as needed.

45
Q

disadvantages of UEFI Native mode

A

No validation or protection of the boot process

46
Q

Secure Boot

A

Each firmware and software executable at boot time must be verified as having prior approval

47
Q

advantages of Secure boot

A

All system firmware, bootloaders, kernels, and other boot-time executables are validated

48
Q

disadvantages of secure boot

A

Custom hardware, firmware, and software may not pass without first being submitted to system vendors like Microsoft

49
Q

Trusted Boot

A

Windows OS checks the integrity of every component of boot process before loading it.

50
Q

advantages of trusted boot

A

Takes over where Secure Boot leaves off by validating the Windows 10 software before loading it

51
Q

disadvantages of trusted boot

A

Requires using Microsoft OS

52
Q

measured boot

A

Computer’s firmware logs the boot process so the OS can send it to a trusted server to assess the security.

53
Q

advantages of a measured boot

A

Provides highest degree of security

54
Q

disadvantages of a measured boot

A

Could slow down the boot process