Ear 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What frequency of tuning fork is used for the ear?

A

512 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of tuning fork is used for the diabetic foot exam?

A

128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 6 D’s of ear disease?

A
  1. Deafness
  2. Discomfort
  3. Discharge
  4. Dizziness
  5. Din Din - tinnitus
  6. Defective movement of face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the nerves that could cause earache?

A

V, VII, IX, X C2 and C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give three examples of conditions involving discharge of the ear?

A

AOM, COM AND CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is another term otitis media with effusion?

A

glue ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What ear condition involves skin in the wrong place?

A

Cholesteatoma - looks like a collection of ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What imaging is good for cholesteatomas?

A

CT scan of temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is benign positional paroxysmal vertigo very common?

A

Yes - commonest cuse of vertigo looking up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What might be observed in vestibular pathologies?

A

Nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name a haematological condition that causes dizziness>?

A

Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What condition has this pathophysiology: otolith material from urticle displaced into semicircular canals. Most commonly in posterior SCC?

A

Benign Positional Paroxysmal Vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between benign positional paroxysmal vertigo and vertebrobasilar insufficiency?

A

Need other symptoms of impaired circulation in posterior brain for example visual disturbance, weakness and numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What condition involves vertigo on looking up, turnng in bed, bending forward and moving the head quickly?

A

Benign Positional Paroxysmal Vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long does BPPV attacks normally last?

A

Brief episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name three treatments for BPPV?

A
  1. Epley Manouevre
  2. Semont Manoeuvre
  3. Brandt-Daroff Exercises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the test for BPPV?

A

Hallpike’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the name for this test: sit on couch so that head will be off end, turn head 45 to one side, warn patient not to close eyes, lie back quickly as comfortable and hold in position to observe?

A

Dix-Hallpike test - nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What condition involves prolonged vertigo (days), no associated tinnitus or hearing loss and probably has viral aetiology?

A

Vestibular Neuronitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between labrynthitis and vestibular neuronitis?

A

Labrynthitis may be associated with tinnitus or hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What disease involves a history of recurrent, spontaneous, rotational vertigo with at least two episodes > 20 mins often lasting hours?

A

Menieres disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What other symptoms are felt in an attack of Menieres other than dizziness?

A

Occurence or worsening of tinnitus on the affected side, occurence of aural fullness on the affected side and other causes excluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What preventative meausres can be used for Menieres disease?

A
  1. Salt restriction
  2. Betahistine
  3. Caffeine
  4. Alcohol
  5. Stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give three management options for Menieres?

A
  1. Grommet insertion
  2. Intratympanic gentamicin/steroids
  3. Surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What condition involves episodic vestibular symptoms of at least moderate severity with at least one of migranous headache, photophobia, phonophobia, visual or other aura?

A

Probable Migrainous Vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the vocal cords doing during phonation?

A

Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do neonates breathe through ?

A

Nasal breathers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can be said about the tongue size and sublgottis shape in neonates?

A

Relatively large tongue

Narrow subglottis 3.5mm at thh cricoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What gives a tad pole appearance in the larynx?

A

Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Should you do a tracheostomy in children?

A

They should be avoided at all possibilites

31
Q

What condition is usually felt as being soft and boggy on the nose?

A

Septal haematoma

32
Q

What condition could a cribiform plate fracture lead to/

A

Anosmia

33
Q

What is the management of epistaxis?

A

Arrest/slow flow: pressure, ice, topical vasoconstrictor +/- lignocaine and adrenaline

34
Q

How are CSF leaks from the nose treated?

A

Often settle spontaneously - need repair after 1 days

35
Q

What clinical sign suggests a temporal bone fracture?

A

Battle sign bruising

36
Q

What blow does a longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone result in?

A

Lateral blow

37
Q

What does a frontal blow result in?

A

Transverse fracture

38
Q

What can cause conductive hearing loss in a normal looking ear?

A

Stapes fixation - otosclerosis

39
Q

Name the weak point of orbit?

A

Infraorbital groove

40
Q

What does the tear drop sign on CT suggest?

A

Blow out fracture - medial wall and floor

41
Q

Wjat type of drug is cetirizine?

A

Anti-histamines

42
Q

Name a decongestant?

A

Pseudoephedrine

43
Q

What type of drug is ipratropium?

A

Anti-cholinergics

44
Q

What are the four s’s of nasal disease?

A

Stuffy, smell, snot and sore

45
Q

Which is more worrying in nasal symptoms - unilateral or bilateral?

A

Unilateral

46
Q

What can cause infective rhinitis?

A

Viral upper respiratory tract infection

47
Q

Give a cause of non-infective rhinitis?

A

Allergic

48
Q

Name a few intermittent causes of allergic rhiniits and some persistent?

A

Grass pollen
Tree pollen
Fungal spores - intermittent

House dust mite
Cat
Dog - persistent

49
Q

Name the three pillars of treatment for allergic rhinitis?

A
  1. Allergic avoidant
  2. Symptomatic therapy - antihistamines, topical steroids
  3. Immunotherapy
50
Q

What are often associated with non-allergic asthma, are treated with oral then topical steroids and if no better are surgically removed?

A

Nasal polyps

51
Q

What can acute infective rhinosinusitis present with?

A
  1. Facial pain
  2. Discharge
  3. Nasal blockage
52
Q

What investigations should you not do when managing infective rhinitis?

A

Nasal x-ray

Sinus x-ray

53
Q

What must you exclude in nasal trauma?

A

Septal haematoma

54
Q

What must you do if a child or adult presents with unilateral discharge?

A

Refer urgently

55
Q

What is an emergency complication of acute sinusitis?

A

Orbital cellulitis

56
Q

What is the name for the ring of lymphoid aggregation in the subepithelial layer of oropharynx and nasopharynx?

A

Waldeyer’s ring

57
Q

What is the tonsil contiguous inferiorly with?

A

The lingual tonsil

58
Q

What is the lining of the tonsils?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

59
Q

What is the lining of the adenoids?

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

60
Q

What are the 3 layers of adenoids?

A
  1. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar
  2. Stratified squamous
  3. Transitional
61
Q

Describe the differences in crypts and folds with tonsils and adenoids?

A

Tonsils - deep crypts

Adenoids - deep folds

62
Q

What is the biggest viral cause of acute tonsillitis?

A

EBV

Then rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza, enterovirus and adenovirus

63
Q

What are the four centor criteria for bacterial tonsilitis?

A
  1. History of fever
  2. Tonsillar exudates
  3. Tender anterior cervical adenopathy
  4. Absence of cough
64
Q

What antibiotic should be given for bacterial tonsilitis?

A

Penicillin

65
Q

Name a complication of acute tonsillitis?

A

Peritonsilar abscess

66
Q

What presents with unilateral throat pain and odynophagia, trismus (difficulty opening mouth) and 3-7 days of preceding acute tonsilitis?

A

Peritonsilar abscess

67
Q

How is peritonsilar abscess treated?

A

With aspiration and antibiotics

68
Q

What presents with gross tonsillar enlargement with membranous exudate, marked cervical lymphadenopathy, palatal petechial haemorrhages, generalised lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Glandular fever

69
Q

How do you test for glandular fever?

A

Atypical lymphocytes in peripheral blood - IgM or positive monospot

70
Q

What happens if you give amoxilcillin to a glandular fever or tonsilitis patients?

A

Macular rash will result

71
Q

What presents with chronic sore throat, malodorous breath, presence of tonsilliths, peritonsillar erythema, persistent tender cervical lymphadwenopathy?

A

Chronic tonsillitis

72
Q

What presents with obligate mouth breathing, hyponasal voice, snoring and AOM/OME?

A

Adenoid obstructive hyperplasia

73
Q

What presents with snoring and muffled voice?

A

Obstructive hyperplasia of tonsils

74
Q

What are some signs of OME/glue ear?

A

TM retraction and dullness
Visible fluid or bubbles
Conductive hearing loss