CST Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The parotid gland secretes:

A

saliva

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2
Q

Which of the following positions would be most likely used for performing a Lumbar Laminectomy?

A

modified prone

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3
Q

You are scheduled to scrub on a cheiloplasty. The anatomical part being revised is:

A

lip

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4
Q

Standard Precautions are to be implemented:

A

when blood and body fluids may be encountered

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5
Q

During a Craniotomy, the brain is protected with:

A

cottonoid pledgets/patties

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6
Q

What kind of procedure is a La Fort III

A

repair of skull fracture

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7
Q

Microorganisms that cause disease are known as:

A

pathogens

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8
Q

A patient with chondromalacia would have softening of the:

A

cartilage

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9
Q

Would Surgical Gut (Chromic) suture be appropriate in cardiovascular surgery to suture vessels or vascular grafts

A

No

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10
Q

The procedure involving the removal of all orbital contents is called:

A

Exenteration

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11
Q

When assisting with the application of a plaster cast, would you secure a bucket of hot water?

A

No

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12
Q

When an infection is caused by a patient’s own normal flora, the source would be referred to as:

A

endogenous

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13
Q

All of the following are guides to be followed when using polymethylmethacrylate (bone cement) except:

mix with a gloved hand

use a fume evacuator

A

mix with a gloved hand

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14
Q

The pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine gland. The hormone secreted by the pancreas directly into the bloodstream is:

A

trypsin

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15
Q

T or F?

the following procedure would usually require a craniotomy incision:

Transphenoidal Hypophysectomy

A

F

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16
Q

Pathogens that get past the first line of defense are engulfed by white blood cells, a process known as:

A

phagocytosis

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17
Q

The thymus gland is located in the___________________cavity.

A

thoracic

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18
Q

Within the kidneys are million of microscopic units that carry out the functions of producing urine. These functional units are called:

A

nephrons

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19
Q

An enzyme produced by some virulent microorganisms, such as the hemolytic streptococcus, that breaks down fibrin and leads to wound infection is:

A

fibrinolysin

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20
Q

An abdominal lateral curvature of the spine for which stabilization procedure may be done is:

A

scoliosis

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21
Q

Venous air embolism would be a surgical complication more likely to occur in patients having a/an:

A

Posterioe Fossa Craniotomy in the sitting position

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22
Q

The part or organelle of the cell considered to be the powerhouse is the

A

mitochondria

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23
Q

The medial malleolus is a projection at the ankle of the:

A

tibia

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24
Q

An agent used against fever is a:

A

Antipyretic

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25
Q

A slow pulse rate is:

A

bradycardia

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26
Q

Bleeding that has occurred between the skull and the outer covering of the brain is a/an:

A

epidural hematoma

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27
Q

An arthrodesis is a procedure to:

A

fuse a joint

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28
Q

Tissue transfer from one part of the body to another with the graft tissue’s blood supply left intact is called a/an:

A

pedicle graft

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29
Q

Which of the following diagnostic procedures utilizes a contrast medium, a computer, and x-ray technology to show differences between normal and abnormal tissues?

A

CT scan

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30
Q

An anticoagulant used during vascular surgery that can be reversed with protamine sulfate is:

A

heparin sodium

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31
Q

The bacteria that are spherical in shape, appear in clusters, and are the most common cause of postoperative wound infections are:

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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32
Q

An infection acquired while in the health care facility is known as:

A

nosocomial infection

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33
Q

One of the most important glands in the body, often referred to as the “master gland”, is the:

A

pituitary

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34
Q

Equipment used to emulsify and remove a benign tumor is a/an;

A

ultrasonic aspirator

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35
Q

Which of the following infectious microorganisms is most likely to be transmitted through contaminated needle stick?

A

Hepatitis B

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36
Q

The large opening located in the occipital bone in called the :

A

foramen magnum

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37
Q

The term pertaining to hidden testicle is:

A

cryptorchidism

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38
Q

Surgical removal of half the stomach is:

A

Hemigastrectomy

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39
Q

Preoperative drops administered were recorded as “Cyclogyl gtts ii O.S. q 5 min times 3.” This means:

A

2 drops were placed in the left eye three times at 5-minute intervals

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40
Q

Of the following equipment, which would least likely be used for neurosurgery?

A

insufflation tubing

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41
Q

A preoperative diagnosis of cholelithiasis indicates a/an:

A

condition of gallstones

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42
Q

A burn patient is brought to the OR with an arm greatly charred and distended with cyanotic fingers. Which of the following procedures would you anticipate?

A

escharotomy

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43
Q

Immediately following surgery of the mouth or pharynx, before consciousness is regained, the patient is positioned:

A

in the lateral position with slight Trendelenburg

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44
Q

The hormones produced by the adrenal cortex to protect one during a stressful situation are:

A

corticoids

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45
Q

The scab or slough produced by a thermal burn is called:

A

eschar

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46
Q

When tissue is taken from one part of the body and grafted to another, it is
called a/an:

A

autograft

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47
Q

Water is absorbed mostly in the:

A

colon

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48
Q

For a vein graft procedure you are instructed to draw up 0.3 ml of a drug. The syringe you will use is:

A

Tuberculin

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49
Q

Normal flora of the intestinal tract includes:

A

Escherischia coli

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50
Q

A blepahroplasty is:

A

repair of the eyelids

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51
Q

The operative microscope in ophthalmic surgery often uses which objective lens distance?

A

175

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52
Q

Death of bone tissue due to the lack of circulation is:

A.arthritis
B. avascular necrosis
C. malunion
D. osteomyelitis

A

avascular necrosis

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53
Q

A drug commonly used to reduce vascular spasms during vascular surgery is:

  • A. papaverine
  • B. prostigmine (Neostigmine)
  • C. gentamicin (Garamycin)
  • D. Heparin sodium
A

papaverine

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54
Q

A device applied while an extremity is elevated for the purpose of exsanguinating blood prior to inflation of a pneumatic tourniquet cuff is a /an

  • esmarch bandage
  • kling bandage
  • kerlix bandage
  • elastoplast bandage
A

esmarch bandage

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55
Q

During minimally-invasive/laparoscopic pelvic surgery, the peritoneal cavity is insufflated with:

  • A. oxygen (don’t you dare pick this one!!!)
  • B. nitrous oxide
  • C. Hyskon solution
  • D. carbon dioxide
A

D. carbon dioxide

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56
Q

A particle of LASER light energy is called a/an:

  • A. electron
  • B. neutron
  • C. photon
  • D. proton
A

C. Photon

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57
Q

The general term for joint reconstruction is:

  • A.osteotomy
  • B.arthrodesis
  • C.osteoarthritis
  • D.arthroplasty
A

D. arthroplasty

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58
Q

An expressed concern of the patient that he or she will be paralyzed following spinal anesthesia should be reported to the:

  • A.surgeon
  • B.anesthesia provider
  • C.circulating nurse
  • D.OR supervisor
A

B. anesthesia provider

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59
Q

The legal term that means “first, do no harm” is:

  • A.primum non nocere
  • B.res ipsa loquitur
  • C.iatorgenic medical injury
  • D.respondent superior
A

A. primum non nocere

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60
Q

Excessive uterine bleeding occurring both during menses and at irregular intervals is:

  • A.menopause
  • B.menometrorrhagia
  • C.dysmenorrhea
  • D.endometriosis
A

B. menometrorrhagia

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61
Q

Careful dissection around the facial (VII) nerve and its branches is essential in which of the following procedures?

  • A.parotidectomy
  • B.thyroidectomy
  • C.Caldwell Luc procedure
  • D.turbinectomy
A

A. parotidectomy

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62
Q

The removal of devitalilzed tissue is:

  • A. dermabrasion
  • B. escharotomy
  • C. fasciotomy
  • D. debridement
A

D. debridement

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63
Q

Homografts or heterografts used as temporary coverings for denuded skin are called:

  • A.biological dressings
  • B.stent dressings
  • C.hand dressings
  • D.flaps
A

A. biological dressings

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64
Q

Dressing sponges are opened by the circulator:

  • A.before the surgical procedure begins
  • B.before the counts are taken
  • C.after the final count is taken
  • D.anytime the scrub calls for them
A

C. after the final count is taken

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65
Q

Blepharoplasty would be indicated for a patient with:

  • A.microtia
  • B.macromastia
  • C.hypertrophy of the orbicularis oculi
  • D.stabismus
A

C. hypertrophy of the orbicularis oculi

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66
Q

Fine dissecting scissors used during abdominal surgery are

  • mayo
  • potts
  • metzenbaum
  • tenotomy
A

metzenbaum

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67
Q

The patient would be placed in the prone position for which of these procedures?

  • A.Excision of Baker’s Cyst
  • B.AK Amputation
  • C.Knee Arthroscopy
  • D.Triple Arthodesis of the Ankle
A

A. Excision of Baker’s Cyst

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68
Q

Special fine-tipped forceps used in plastic surgery include:

  • A.Senn
  • B.Brown-Adson
  • C.Webster
  • D.Stevens
A

B. Brown-Adson

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69
Q

A contrast medium used when performing a cholangiogram is:

  • A.methylene blue
  • B.Schiller’s solution
  • C.diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque)
  • D.gentian violet
A

C. diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque)

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70
Q

During an open pelvic procedure the surgeon asks for the bladder stitch. Of the following sutures on your field, which one would you give the surgeon?

  • A. 2-0 chromic
  • B. 3-0 silk
  • C. 4-0 Prolene
  • D. 1 Vicryl
A

A. 2-0 Chromic

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71
Q

During which phase of wound healing is the strength of the wound limited to the suture holding it together?

  • A.granulation
  • B.inflammatory (lag) phase
  • C.epithelization (proliferation)
  • D.remolding (maturation)
A

B. inflammatory (lag) phase

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72
Q

The most likely donor site for an autogenous bone graft is the:

  • A.femur
  • B.ischium
  • C.scapula
  • D.ilium
A

D. ilium

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73
Q

The type of fracture that includes splintered or crushed bone is:

  • A.Colles
  • B.greenstick
  • C.compound
  • D.comminuted
A

D. comminuted

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74
Q

Bioburden refers to:

  • A.an agent that kills microorganisms on inanimate objects
  • B.the process of destroying all microorganisms, including spores
  • C.inhibition of bacterial growth
  • D.the degree of microbial contamination
A

D. the degree of microbial contamination

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75
Q

Any of the following instruments could be used for hemostasis EXCEPT

  • babcock
  • crile
  • kelly
  • tonsil
A

babcock

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76
Q

The most widely used method for identifying bacteria by dividing them into groups is:

  • A.Gram stain
  • B.acid-fast stain
  • C.simple stain
  • D.sensitivity study
A

A. Gram stain

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77
Q

In orthopedic surgery, absorbable suture would most likely be used on:

  • A.tendons
  • B.periosteum
  • C.ligaments
  • D.bone
A

B. periosteum

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78
Q

Following modified radical mastectomy, the breast incision would be drained using a

  • closed wound drain attached to vacuum drainage
  • foley catheter attached to gravity drainage
  • penrose drain attached to vacuum drainage
  • T-tube attached to gravity drainage
A

closed wound drain attached to vacuum drainage

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79
Q

The force or push that moves free electrons from one atom to antther is referred to as:

  • A. amperes
  • B. frequency
  • C. power
  • D. voltage
A

D. voltage

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80
Q

A sentinel node biopsy is performed to

  • remove breast tissue in a female patient that is suspected of being cancerous
  • remove enlarged breast tissue in the male patient
  • remove all inguinal lymph nodes
  • remove the first lymph node that drains an area of suspected cancer
A

remove the first lymph node that drains an area of suspected cancer

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81
Q

The reason for the 90 degree limit for extension of a patient’s arm on a padded arm board is:

  • A. avoiding injury to the brachial plexus
  • B. avoiding injury to the ulnar nerve
  • C. avoiding injury to the peroneal nerve
  • D. avoid injury to the sciatic nerve
A

A. avoiding injury to the brachial plexus

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82
Q

The needle point most appropriate for suturing liver, pancreas, or spleen is:

  • A.taper
  • B.blunt
  • C.cutting
  • D.trocar
A

B. blunt

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83
Q

Cardiac pacing is indicated for which of the following conditions?

  • A.Atelectasis
  • B.Atheroosclerosis
  • C.Congestive Heart Failure
  • D.Heart Block
A

D. Heart Block

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84
Q

An incision made below the breast is:

  • A.Hypodermic
  • B.Suprapubic
  • C.Inframammary
  • D.Subcutaneous
A

C. Inframammary

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85
Q

You are assigned to scrub on a gunshot wound of the abdomen with a perforated bowel and will expect the surgeon to:

  • A.clean up the wound and approximate wound edges for primary intention healing
  • B.irrigate and suction in preparation for second intention healing
  • C.suture individual layers of tissue after debridement of the wound
  • D.clean up the wound, pack the wound to keep wound edges apart, and bring the patient back at a later date for delayed closure
A

D. clean up the wound, pack the wound to keep wound edges apart, and bring the patient back at a later date for delayed closure

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86
Q

An outpouching of an alveolar sac which leads to subsequent rupture resulting in a pneumothorax is called a/an:

  • A.Aneurysm
  • B.Bleb
  • C.Atelectasis
  • D.Arteriovenous fistula
A

B. Bleb

87
Q

A disease associated with bone conduction hearing loss whereby the stapes becomes fixed is:

  • A.epistaxis
  • B.acoustic neuroma
  • C.Meniere’s Disease
  • D.otosclerosis
A

D. otosclerosis

88
Q

A local anesthetic that isonly used topically is:

  • A.lidocaine hydrocholride (Xylocaine)
  • B.cocaine hydrochloride
  • C.bupivicaine hydrochloride (Marcaine)
  • D.procaine hydrochloride (Nova=ocaine)
A

B. cocaine hydrochloride

89
Q

The most reliable means of monitoring the effectiveness of the sterilizer that ensures sterilzation parameters have been met is:

  • A.biological
  • B.mechanical
  • C.chemical
  • D.non, monitoring is not required
A

A. biological

90
Q

The medical term for a facelift is:

  • A.Rhytidectomy
  • B.Lipectomy
  • C.Mentoplasty
  • D.Rhizotomy
A

A. Rhytidectomy

91
Q

As the scrub, with which of the following procedures would you anticipate the use of chest tubes and a water-seal drainage system?

  • A. Lobectomy
  • B. Scalene Node Biopsy
  • C. Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty
  • D. Cardiac Pacemaker Insertion
A

A. Lobectomy

92
Q

Equipment used to debride and clean infected wounds and joints is:

  • A. periosteal elevator
  • B. drill/reamer
  • C. suction irrigator
  • D. impactor
A

C. suction irrigator

93
Q

All of the following are indications for a Cesarean section except:

  • A. cephalopelvic disproportion
  • B. eclampsia
  • C. ectopic pregnancy
  • D. abruptio placenta
A

C. ectopic pregnancy

94
Q

Benign tumors that grow on a stalk and can be found on mucous membranes are called:

  • A. turbinates
  • B. polyps
  • C. adenoids
  • D. scalene nodes
A

B. polyps

95
Q

A “blowout” fracture would be repaired with which device(s)?

  • A. plates and cortical screws
  • B. plates and cancellous screws
  • C. cortical screws only
  • D. silastic sling
A

D. silastic sling

96
Q

A simple diagnostic procedure to differentiate normal from abnormal cervical or vaginal tissue by a staining technique is:

  • A. culdocentesis
  • B. hysteroscopy
  • C. Papanicolaou (Pap smear)
  • D. Schiller’s test
A

D. Schiller’s test

97
Q

A woman who is pregnant for the first time is:

  • A. primiparous
  • B. primigravida
  • C. multiparous
  • D. multigravida
A

B. primigravida

98
Q

A herniation of the brain and its coverings through a defect in the skull is:

  • A. Meningoencephalocele
  • B. Myelomeningocele
  • C. Encephaloma
  • D. Aneurysm
A

A. Meningoencephalocele

99
Q

Development of the “surgical eye” and the “surgical ear” helps the surgical technologist develop which affective behavior?

  • empathy
  • motivation
  • surgical conscience
  • anticipation
A

anticipation

100
Q

A radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy is a/an:

  • A. anterior exenteration
  • B. Le Fort operation
  • C. cerclage
  • D. Wertheim operation
A

D. Wertheim operation

101
Q

In the middle of the surgical procedure a critical stainless steel instrument is contaminated and there is no sterile replacement. Which time setting would be selected for the flash autoclave?

  • A. 3 minutes
  • B. 10 minutes
  • C. 15 minutes
  • D. 30 minutes
A

A. 3 minutes

102
Q

If the temperature on the steam sterilizer reads 270 degrees F, what should the pressure reading be?

  • A. 15 to 17 psi
  • B. 20 to 25 psi
  • C. 27 psi
  • D. 30 to 35 psi
A

C. 27 psi

103
Q

The grounding pad which connects the patient to the electrosurgical generator is called a /an

  • active electrode
  • inactive dispersive electrode
  • bipolar electrode
  • monitor
A

inactive dispersive electrode

104
Q

Obtaining an informed consent for surgery is the ultimate responsibility of the:

  • A. anesthesia provider
  • B. circulator
  • C. OR supervisor
  • D. surgeon
A

D. surgeon

105
Q

Patient safety in the operating room is the responsibility of the:

  • A. surgeon
  • B. anesthesiologist
  • C. nurse
  • D. entire surgical team
A

D. entire surgical team

106
Q

The ligament of Treitz is found between which two structures?

  • stomach and duodenum
  • duodenum and jejunum
  • jejunum and ileum
  • ileum and cecum
A

duodenum and jejunum

107
Q

The characteristics of LASER light include all of the following except:

  • A. coherence
  • B. collimation
  • C. divergence
  • D. monochromatic
A

C. divergence

108
Q

The legal rule broken when a surgical team member discloses information about a patient which he or she learned in the operating room is:

  • A. invasion of privacy
  • B. doctrine of reasonable man
  • C. iatrogenic injury
  • D. primum non nocere
A

A. invasion of privacy

109
Q

The needle gauge most appropriate for local infiltration is:

  • A. 16g
  • B. 18g
  • C. 20g
  • D. 25g
A

D. 25g

110
Q

Match the following sponges with their use.

  • blunt dissection of tissue
  • swabbing delicate (brain) structures
  • walling off viscera
  • swabbing superficial tissue
    • A. cottonoid patties
  • B. lap sponges
  • C. peanut sponges
  • D. raytecs
A
  • Blunt dissection of tissue= peanut sponges
  • swabbing delicate (brain) structures= cottonoid patties
  • walling off viscera= lap sponges
  • swabbing superficial tissue= raytecs
111
Q

The AST Code of Ethics includes all of the following EXCEPT

  • maintaining the highest standards of professional conduct and patient care
  • always following the principles of asepsis
  • respecting and protecting the patient’s legal and moral right to quality patient care
  • all of the above are true; there are no exceptions listed
A

all of the above are true; there are no exceptions listed

112
Q

The heat transference that results from contact of internal organs with a cool irrigation solution is:

  • A. conduction
  • B. collimation
  • C. radiation
  • D. reflection
A

A. conduction

113
Q

The most common surgical management for BPH (benign prostatic hypertrophy) is:

  • A. TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate)
  • B. suprapubic prostatectomy
  • C. retropubic prostatectomy
  • D. perineal prostatectomy
A

A. TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate)

114
Q

The instrument most commonly used to grasp the appendix during an appendectomy is a/an

  • kelly
  • kocher
  • babcock
  • allis
A

babcock

115
Q

For a right nephrectomy, the patient would be placed in the _______ position:

  • A. right lateral kidney
  • B. left lateral kidney
  • C. Sims
  • D. Kraske
A

C. Sims

116
Q

The autogenous graft which is left in place after destruction of the internal valves and then sutured into the arterial system is:

  • A. in-situ saphenous vein graft
  • B. human umbilical cord graft
  • C. PTFE Graft
  • D. ligation and stripping of the saphenous vein
A

A. in-situ saphenous vein graft

117
Q

Relief of symptoms without curing a disease is referred to as a/an ____ procedure.

  • diagnostic
  • palliative
  • interventive
  • prophylactic
A

palliative

118
Q

The incision used for a thyroidectomy is:

  • A. postaural
  • B. eyebrow
  • C. Y-type incision on either side of the ear
  • D. collar
A

D. collar

119
Q

Inability to control urination is:

  • A. uremia
  • B. cystitis
  • C. urinary continence
  • D. urinary incontinence
A

D. urinary incontinence

120
Q

Should a cardiac arrest occur in the OR, the role of the scrub would be to:

  • A. perform mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
  • B. perform cardiac compression
  • C. obtain crash cart
  • D. maintain the sterile field and keep track of counts
A

D. maintain the sterile field and keep track of counts

121
Q

The most commonly used self-retaining urethral catheter is a:

  • A. Pezzer
  • B. Malecot
  • C. Robinson
  • D. Foley
A

D. Foley

122
Q

The most effective and efficient method for sterilizing wrapped instrument sets is a /an

  • prevacuum sterilizer
  • flash autoclave
  • ultrasonic cleaner
  • peracetic acid sterilizer
A

prevacuum sterilizer

123
Q

Mediastinoscopy is usually performed with the patient in what position?

  • A. Lateral
  • B. Sims
  • C. Dorsal Recumbent
  • D. Prone
A

C. Dorsal Recumbent

124
Q

The incision for an Exploratory Laparotomy would be the

  • McBurney
  • Pfannenstiel
  • periumbilical
  • midline
A

midline

125
Q

Subsequent counts are taken for all of the following EXCEPT

  • before closure of a body cavity
  • after closure of a body cavity
  • at the time of permanent relief of scrub and / or circulator
  • after the dressing sponges are opened
A

after the dressing sponges are opened

126
Q

Hernias that significantly reduce the blood supply to the hernia contents are said to be ______ hernias

  • incarcerated
  • strangulated
  • direct
  • indirect
A

strangulated

127
Q

The electrical energy device that causes the collagen matrix in vessel walls and connective tissue to reform into a permanently fused tissue matrix is the :

  • A. Argon-enhanced coagulator
  • B. Electrosurgical unit (ESU)
  • C. Harmonic Scalpel
  • D. LigaSure
A

D. LigaSure

128
Q

The Bowie-Dick test must be run daily in which of the following types of sterilizers?

  • A. ethylene oxide gas
  • B. hydrogen peroxide plasma
  • C. peracetic acid
  • D. prevacuum
A

D. prevacuum

129
Q

The artery that carries deoxygenated blood in the adult is the:

  • A. Aorta
  • B. Carotid Artery
  • C. Pulmonary Artery
  • D. Coronary Artery
A

C. Pulmonary Artery

130
Q

Scalpel blades are applied with

  • gloved fingers
  • kocher
  • needle holder
  • tissue forceps
A

needle holder

131
Q

Scissors found in the basic eye instrumet tray that are used to cut the conjunctiva are called:

  • A. Wescott
  • B. Vannas
  • C. de Wicker
  • D. Bishop Harmon
A

A. Wescott

132
Q

The knife used to make an opening into the eardrum is:

  • A. scalpel with #12 blade
  • B. Fisher knife
  • C. myringotomy knife
  • D. Ballinger swivel knife
A

C. myringotomy knife

133
Q

Items that contact sterile tissue and must be sterilized are considered:

  • A. critical
  • B. semicritical
  • C. noncritical
  • D. restricted
A

A. critical

134
Q

Induced hypothermia may be accomplished by all of the following except:

  • A. drugs
  • B. packing the body in ice
  • C. irrigating with cold fluids
  • D. use of cooling blanket
A

A. drugs

135
Q

The mechanical energy device that uses a piezoelectric transducer to create mechanical friction energy is called the :

  • A. Argon-enhanced coagulator
  • B. Harmonic Scalpel
  • C. LigaSure
  • D. Morcellator
A

B. Harmonic Scalpel

136
Q

The instrument used to approximate the ribs following Thoracotomy is the:

  • A. Duval Clamp
  • B. Bailey Rib Contractor
  • C. Harken-Finochetto Retractor
  • D. Alexander Periosteotome
A

B. Bailey Rib Contractor

137
Q

Of the following sutures, which will be absorbed quickest?

  • A. surgical gut
  • B. polyglycolic acid (Vicryl)
  • C. Polypropylene (Prolene)
  • D. polydioxanone (PDS)
A

A. surgical gut

138
Q

The dressing that shoudl be placed nearest the wound is:

  • A. primary dressing
  • B. secondary dressing
  • C. prussure dressing
  • D. rigid dressing
A

A. primary dressing

139
Q

The number of persons required to position a patient in stirrups is:

  • A. one
  • B. two
  • C. three
  • D. four
A

B. two

140
Q

The characteristics of light energy include all of the following except:

  • A. Color
  • B. radiation
  • C. reflection
  • D. refraction
A

B. radiation

141
Q

Solid medium LASERs include which of the following?

  • A. argon and carbon dioxide
  • B. carbon dioxide adn KTP
  • C. KTP and Nd:YAG
  • D. tunable dye adn Nd:YAG
A

C. KTP and Nd:YAG

142
Q

If a premedicated patient were left unattended and fell from the stretcher and received an injury, this would be a direct example of :

  • A. abandonment
  • B. corporate negligence
  • C. accountability
  • D. doctrine of the reasonable man
A

A. abandonment

143
Q

The instrument used to excise vitreous humor is called a/an:

  • A. cryoprobe
  • B. ocutome
  • C. phacoemulsifier
  • D. wet-field “eraser”
A

B. ocutome

144
Q

For which of the following wound drains would a sterile safety pin be needed?

  • A. sump drain
  • B. closed wound suction drain
  • C. Penrose drain
  • D. gravity drain
A

C. Penrose drain

145
Q

Sagging and eversion of the lower lid is termed a/an:

  • A. entropion
  • B. blepharoptosis
  • C. ectropion
  • D. pterygium
A

C. ectropion

146
Q

Possible complications of a nephrectomy include all of the following except:

  • A. hemorrhage
  • B. impotence
  • C. accidental entry into the pleural space
  • D. damage to the spleen or duodenum
A

B. impotence

147
Q

The clamps most desirable for approximating uterine wound edges for closure during a Cesarean section are:

  • A. Pennington
  • B. Allis
  • C. Adson
  • D. hemostat
A

A. Pennington

148
Q

The abdominal cavity is filled with whcih gas to create pneumoperitoneum during minimally-invasive surgery (laparoscopy)?

  • nitrous oxide
  • oxygen
  • carbon monoxide
  • carbon dioxide
A

carbon dioxide

149
Q

The branch of medicine that deals with perinatal care is:

  • A. obstetrics
  • B. gynecology
  • C. neonatology
  • D. perinatology
A

A. obstetrics

150
Q

The operating room temperature should be raised from the normal 68 F to 75 F for which of the following patient populations.

  • A. the diabetic patient
  • B. the female patient
  • C. the infant
  • D. the adolescent
A

C. the infant

151
Q

When fibrous bands of scar tissue bind organs together, the condition is:

  • A. adhesions
  • B. cicatrix
  • C. evisceration
  • D. sinus tract
A

adhesions

152
Q

The surgical procedure done to straighten a deviated septum in the nose is a/an:

  • A. antrostomy
  • B. sphenoidectomy
  • C. submucous resection
  • D. mastoidectomy
A

C. submucous resection

153
Q

Vesicourethral suspension, such as the Stamey procedure and the Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz procedure, are performed to correct:

  • A. hypospadias
  • B. spermatocele
  • C. cryptorchidism
  • D. female urinary incontinence
A

D. female urinary incontinence

154
Q

When suturing the cornea following an intraocular procedure, which material would most commonly be used?

  • A. 10-0 chromic gut
  • B. 7-0 polyglycolic acid
  • C. 10-0 nylon
  • D. 7-0 nylon
A

C. 10-0 nylon

155
Q

To counteract the heat produced by an electric-powered instrument, the scrub will

  • disconnect the instrument when not in use
  • drip sterile saline from a bulb syringe onto the blade of the instrument while it is in action
  • place the instrument in ice water when not in use
  • cool it with a solution of alcohol while it is in action
A

drip sterile saline from a bulb syringe onto the blade of the instrument while it is in action

156
Q

Which of the following is a urinary diversion procedure?

  • A. pyelolithotomy
  • B. ileal conduit
  • C. lithopaxy
  • D. retrograde pyelogram
A

B. ileal conduit

157
Q

When receiving drugs from the circulator, the scrub should:

  • A. clean the top of the vial before inserting the needle
  • B. ask the circulator to read the label before withdrawing the solution
  • C. Keep the medication vial on the back table until the procedure is over
  • D. read aloud the name of the drug, strength and /or amount of the drug, and the expiration date
A

D. read aloud the name of the drug, strength and /or amount of the drug, and the expiration date

158
Q

The prefix that designates 1000 times the basic unit in the metric system is:

  • A. Milli-
  • B. Centi-
  • C. Kilo-
  • D. Micro-
A

C. Kilo-

159
Q

What specialty supply is used when performing minimally-invasive surgery (laparoscopy) using the open method?

  • hasson device
  • verres needle
  • disposable poole suction
  • 1X3 cottonoids/patties
A

hasson device

160
Q

Which of the following methods of hemostasis is thermal?

  • A. absorbable gelatin (Gelfoam)
  • B. thrombin
  • C. Esmarch bandage
  • D. electrocautery
A

D. electrocautery

161
Q

The surgical specimen which is examined immediately by the pathologist is a/an:

  • A. amputated limb
  • B. culture
  • C. foreign body
  • D. frozen section
A

D. frozen section

162
Q

The purpose of performing a Dacrocystorhinostomy is to:

  • A. create an opening into the maxillary sinus
  • B. correct an entropion
  • C. create an opening for tear flow from the eye
  • D. correct a defect in the tarsal plate of the eyelid
A

C. create an opening for tear flow from the eye

163
Q

When packaging instruments for sterilization, instruments should be:

  • A. fully assembled
  • B. lubricated
  • C. placed in closely nested section
  • D. left open and placed on a rack
A

D. left open and placed on a rack

164
Q

The surgical procedure done to correct sleep apnea (absence of breathing for periods during sleep) is:

  • A. laryngectomy
  • B. tracheotomy
  • C. rhinoplasty
  • D. uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
A

D. uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

165
Q

the method of heat transfer used in a neonatiol warmer is:

  • A. conduction
  • B. convection
  • C. radiation
  • D. refraction
A

C. radiation

166
Q

Which of the following is not an acceptable method of transporting contaminated instruments down the hall following a surgical procedure?

  • A. in a closed case cart
  • B. covered in a plastic bag
  • C. in an open-mesh bottom tray
  • D. any of the above are acceptable methods
A

C. in an open-mesh bottom tray

167
Q

Which of the following instruments would be considered contaminated during a craniotomy?

  • A. craniotome used for burr holes in skull
  • B. Penfield dissector used to separate dura from the skull
  • C. Cushing forceps used in placement of traction sutures in the dura
  • D. needle holder used when securing drape towels
A

D. needle holder used when securing drape towels

168
Q

Which suture is contraindicated both in the presence of infection and in the urinary and biliary tract?

  • A. chromic gut
  • B. polypropylene (Prolene)
  • C. polydioxanone (PDS)
  • D. silk
A

D. silk

169
Q

Which of the following statements is true of cocaine hydrochloride?

  • A. A 5% solution of cocaine may be injected as a local anesthetic.
  • B. It is used topically as an anesthetic and to lessen bleeding.
  • C. It is mixed with epinephrine and given IV.
  • D. It is applied to the postoperative dressing.
A

It is used topically as an anesthetic and to lessen bleeding

170
Q

The operative permit must be signed:

  • A. before the patient enters the hospital
  • B. before the pre-operative sedative medication is given
  • C. after the patient arrives in the holding area
  • D. just before surgery is begun
A

B. before the pre-operative sedative medication is given

171
Q

The safest, most practical means for sterilizing heat and moisture stable items is:

  • A. saturated steam under pressure
  • B. ethylene oxide gas
  • C. activated glutaraldehyde
  • D. boiling water
A

A. saturated steam under pressure

172
Q

Which credential attests to the quality of an educational program in surgical technology?

  • registration
  • certification
  • accreditation
  • licensure
A

accreditation

173
Q

The removal of a fibroid tumor from the uterus is a/an:

  • A. oophorectomy
  • B. fibroidectomy
  • C. myomectomy
  • D. hysterectomy
A

C. myomectomy

174
Q

Which instrument is an example of a GI atraumatic clamp?

  • Allen Clamp
  • Debakey clamp
  • Kerrison clamp
  • Rochester Peon Hemostat
A

Allen Clamp

175
Q

Which of the following materials is NOT a conductor of electrical energy?

  • A. carbon
  • B. rubber
  • C. copper
  • D. water
A

B. rubber

176
Q

When draping a sterile field, the scrubbed person would do all of the following except:

  • A. drape from the periphery to the operative site
  • B. protect the gloved hand with a cuff
  • C. drape the patient and all furniture and equipment to be included in the sterile field
  • D. hold drapes in a compact position above waist level
A

A. drape from the periphery to the operative site

177
Q

To decrease airborne contamination and static electricity, the relative humidity of the operating room is maintained at:

  • A. 30% to 35%
  • B. 40% to 45%
  • C. 50% to 55%
  • D. 70% to 75%
A

C. 50% to 55%

178
Q

Which of the concepts of electrosurgical unit (ESU) electrical energy flow is correct?

  • A. Use of monopolar energy flow may result in alternate site burns.
  • B. During the use of monopolar electrical energy, the energy passes through the tissue and returns through the same instrument used to deliver the energy
  • C. use of bipolar energy flow may result in alternate site burns.
  • D. Use of bipolar energy flow requires the use of a return electrode pad.
A

Use of monopolar energy flow may result in alternate site burns.

179
Q

Which of the following is a voluntary demonstration of competency in a professional area?

  • registration
  • certification
  • accreditation
  • licensure
A

certification

180
Q

Which of the following instruments would be used to cut bone?

  • rongeurs
  • allis forceps
  • # 4 scalpel handle with a #10 blade
  • tenaculum
A

rongeurs

181
Q

The position that permits enhanced visualizaion during pelvic surgery is:

  • A. reverse Trendelenburg
  • B. Trendelenburg
  • C. lithotomy
  • D. Sims
A

B. Trendelenburg

182
Q

Which of the following solutions is electrolytic and would not be used with a fulgeration or transurethral resection of the prostate?

  • A. normal saline
  • B. sterile distilled water
  • C. glycine
  • D. sorbitol
A

A. normal saline

183
Q

X-ray visualization of the kidneys, ureters and bladder following an intravenous injection of dye is a diagnostic test called:

  • A. retrograde pyelogram
  • B. intravenous urogram
  • C. KUB
  • D. cystometrogram
A

B. intravenous urogram

184
Q

The physician asks for 30 mg of papaverine and the label on the bottle reads “60mg/2ml.” How much would you draw up?

  • A. 1.5 ml
  • B. 1ml
  • C. 0.5 ml
  • D. 2ml
A

B. 1ml

185
Q

The treatment of choice for patent ductus arteriosus is:

  • A. Patch Graft
  • B. Suture ligation of the duct
  • C. Atrial Septostomy
  • D. Posterior Sagittal Anorectoplasty
A

B. Suture ligation of the duct

186
Q

Which instrument is most commonly used to dissect through the gastrohepatic ligament during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

  • Endoscopic babcock
  • Maryland dissector
  • endoscopic spatula
  • hasson grasper
A

Maryland dissector

187
Q

Which of the following retractors would be most useful in a posterolateral Thorocotomy?

  • A. Balfour
  • B. O’Sullivan-O’Connor
  • C. Davidson Scapula
  • D. Weitlaner
A

C. Davidson Scapula

188
Q

the motto of the Association of Surgical Technologists is Aeger Primo,

  • A. first do no harm
  • B. the thing speaks for itself
  • C. the patient first
  • D. do your best
A

C. the patient first

189
Q

when passing a prepared drug to the surgeon, the scrub would

  • A. ask the physician to repeat the request
  • B. recite the name, amount, and /or strength of the drug
  • C. ask the circulator to read the label from the medication vial
  • D. ask the anesthesia provider to recite the name of the drug
A

B. recite the name, amount, and /or strength of the drug

190
Q

The surgical schedule shows the first operations to be “ECCE with IOL, OD.” You will be prepared for:

  • A. removal of the right eye with prostheses replacement
  • B. removal of a cataract with lens implant in the right eye
  • C. correction of strabismus of both eyes
  • D. corneal replacement of the left eye
A

B. removal of a cataract with lens implant in the right eye

191
Q

With which of the following procedures should a patient be instructed to avoid blowing the nose, coughing, sneezing, swimming and air travel?

  • A. stapedectomy
  • B. thyroglossal duct cystectomy
  • C. radical neck dissection
  • D. parathyroidectomy
A

A. stapedectomy

192
Q

which professional organization accredits the education f the profession of surgical technology?

  • Joint Commission of Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
  • Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Program (CAAHEP)
  • American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
  • National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH
A

Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Program (CAAHEP)

193
Q

The position of choice for the patient with a prolapsed umbilical cord is:

  • A. supine
  • B. turned onto the left side
  • C. prone
  • D. Kraske
A

B. turned onto the left side

194
Q

Which of the following instruments could be used to dilate a male urethra?

  • A. Hegar dilator
  • B. van Buren sound
  • C. lithotrite
  • D. urethratome
A

B. van Buren sound

195
Q

The proper attire for the semi restricted area in the operating room suite, such as a conference room, is:

  • A. street clothes
  • B. scrub suit, cap, shoe covers
  • C. scrub suit, cap, shoe covers, mask
  • D. scrub suit, cap, shoe covers, mask, eye protection
A

B. scrub suit, cap, shoe covers

196
Q

The scissors used to open the common bile duct during open duct exploration are called

  • metzenbaum
  • potts
  • mayo
  • tenotomy
A

potts

197
Q

all of the following are safety measures for the sponge, sharp and instrument count EXCEPT

  • if a sponge pack contains an incorrect number of sponges, repeat the count and make the necessary adjustments on the count sheet
  • counts are performed before closure of a hollow organ such as the uterus
  • specimens going to pathology should not be placed on a counted sponge
  • needles should be handed to the surgeon on an exchange basis
A

if a sponge pack contains and incorrect number of sponges, repeat the count and make the necessary adjustments on the count sheet

198
Q

which of the following is not a part of the fire triangle?

  • A. fuel
  • B. carbon dioxide
  • C. an ignition source
  • D. oxygen
A

B. carbon dioxide

199
Q

When setting up the mayo stand for an exploratory laparotomy, which of he following instruments would NOT be placed there?

  • curved metzenbaum scissors
  • richardson retractor
  • hemostat clamps
  • # 3 Knife handle with a #11 blade
A

Correct #3 Knife handle with a #11 blade

200
Q

The surgical incision that is commonly used for pelvic gynecological procedures and has a low incidence of dehiscence is the ______ incision.

  • midline
  • thoracoabdominal
  • McBurney
  • Pfannenstiel
A

Pfannenstiel

201
Q
A
  • Harrington rods
  • internal splints that help maintain the spine as straight as possible until vertebral body fusion becomes solid
  • used for scoliosis
202
Q

mixter

A

Right Angle Forceps are ratcheted, finger ring forceps commonly used for working in obscured surgical sites. They are most frequently used for clamping, dissection, or grasping tissue

203
Q
A
  • Lebsche sternum knife
  • used to open the sternum
204
Q
A
  • Finochietto Rib retractor
205
Q
A
  • pedicle clamp
  • used in a spleenctomy
206
Q
A
  • A hurd dissector and pillar retractor
  • used in tonsillectomy
207
Q
A
  • Lempert elevator
  • used in surgery of the ear
208
Q
A
  • Scoville retractor
  • used in laminectomy
209
Q
A
  • Sauerbruch rongeur
210
Q
A
  • Percy amputation retractor
211
Q
A
  • Hirschmann rectal anoscope retractor
212
Q
A
  • Hill-Fergussun rectum speculum
213
Q
A
  • ryder needle holder
  • used for commonly used with very small suture needles in cardiovascular, plastic, and neurosurgical procedures
214
Q
A
  • Webster needle holder
  • used in plastics