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Review For Board Exam > Clinical Chemistry Pre-Test > Flashcards

Clinical Chemistry Pre-Test Flashcards

1
Q

Base quantity for amount of substance
a. Kilogram
b. Liters
c. Mole
d. Candela

A

Mole

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2
Q

What is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis?
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Sodium fluoride
d. No anticoagulant

A

Heparin

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3
Q

All of the following shows the correct order of draw, except:

a. Coagulation tube, Heparin Tube, EDTA, Glycolytic inhibitor tube

b. Sterile tube, EDTA, Sodium Citrate Tube, Heparin Tube

c. Blood Culture Tube, Red Top, Pearl Top, Green Top

d. None of the above

A

Sterile tube, EDTA, Sodium Citrate Tube, Heparin Tube

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4
Q

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the
a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Adrenal Glands

A

Liver

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5
Q

A volumetric pipette has an accuracy of:

a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:1000
d. 1:10,000

A

1:1000

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6
Q

A pipette with a bulb close to the delivery tip is used for viscous fluids and is called a:

a. Mohr pipette
b. Pasteur pipette
c. Ostwald-Folin pipette
d. Volumetric pipette

A

Ostwald-Folin pipette

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7
Q
  1. The etched rings on the top of a pipette means

a. The last drop is to be blown out after the pipettes drains

b. The pipette is self-draining

c. The tip of the pipette should not be allowed to touch the vessel while the pipette is draining

d. All of the above

A

The last drop is to be blown out after the pipettes drains

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8
Q

This is used to check the speed of the centrifuge
a. Tachometer
b. Strobe light
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

Both A and B

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9
Q

The summation of all results divided by the number of results.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. CoV

A

Mean

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10
Q
  1. It is the most common value or observation.
    a. Mean
    b. Median
    c. Mode
    d. SD
A

Mode

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11
Q

The major extracellular anion
a. Potassium
b. Chloride
c. Sodium
d. Calcium

A

Chloride

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12
Q
  1. In absorption spectrophotometry:

a. Absorbance is directly proportional to transmittance

b. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to concentration

c. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length

d. Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

A

Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

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13
Q

Which wavelength would be absorbed strongly by a red-colored solution?
a. 450nm
b. 585 nm
c. 600nm
d. 650nm

A

450 nm

Note: A solution transmits light corresponding in wavelength to its color, and usually absorbs light of wavelengths complementary to its color. A red solution transmits light of 600–650 nm and strongly absorbs 400–500 nm light.

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14
Q

Which type of monochromator produces the purest monochromatic light in the UV range?

a. A diffraction grating and a fixed exit slit

b. A sharp cutoff filter and a variable exit slit

c. Interference filters and a variable exit slit

d. A prism and a variable exit slit

A

A prism and a variable exit slit

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15
Q

The reproducibility of test measurements is referred to as:
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Reliability
d. Reproducibility

A

Precision

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16
Q

In flow cytometry, the side scatter is related to the:
a. DNA content of the cell
b. Granularity of the cell
c. Size of the cell
d. Number of cells in G0 and G1

A

Granularity of the cell

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following approaches of automated analyzers uses a rotor to mix reagents?
    a. Centrifugal analysis
    b. Continuous flow
    c. Discrete analysis
    d. Dry chemistry slide analysis
A

Centrifugal analysis

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18
Q

Which of the following chemistry analyzers uses “slides” to contain the entire reagent system?

a. Vitros© analyzers
b. ACA© analyzers
c. Paramax© analyzers
d. None of the above

A

Vitros© analyzers

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19
Q
  1. In cirrhosis, a predominant characteristic observed in electrophoretic serum pattern is a(an):

a. Increase in alpha2 globulin fraction

b. Bridging effect between beta and gamma globulin fraction

c. Monoclonal band in gamma globulin region

d. Polyclonal band in gamma globulin region

A

Bridging effect between beta and gamma globulin fraction

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20
Q

A congenital disorder characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is subjected to electrophoresis is known as:
a. Analbuminemia
b. Anodic albuminemia
c. Bisalbuminemia
d. Prealbuminemia

A

Bisalbuminemia

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21
Q

The relative concentration of LD isoenzymes in normal serum:
a. LD 1>2>3>4>5
b. LD 2>1>3>4>5
c. LD 2>1>4>3>5
d. LD 5>4>3>2>1

A

LD 2>1>3>4>5

22
Q

How much 20% alcohol is required to make 1 liter of 10% alcohol?
a. 0.4 L
b. 0.5 L
c. 0.8 L
d. 1.0 L

A

0.5 L

23
Q

Calculate the dilution if 5 mL of serum is diluted with 15 mL of saline solution.
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:4
d. 1:5

A

1:4

24
Q

The cellulose acetate electrophoresis at pH 8.6 of serum proteins will show an order of migration beginning with the fastest migration as follows:

a. Albumin, alpha-1 globulin, alpha-2 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin

b. Alpha-1 globulin, alpha-2 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin, albumin

c. Albumin, alpha-2 globulin, alpha-1 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin

d. Gamma globulin, beta globulin, alpha-2 globulin, alpha-1 globulin, albumin

A

Albumin, alpha-1 globulin, alpha-2 globulin, beta globulin, gamma globulin

25
Q
  1. Which enzymes are generally quantified to help diagnose acute pancreatitis?
    a. ALT and CK
    b. ALT and LD
    c. Amylase and lipase
    d. ALP and cholinesterase
A

Amylase and lipase

26
Q

Neurohypophysis secretes
a. Oxytocin and Vasopressin
b. Growth Hormone and LH
c. TSH
d. Somatostatin

A

Oxytocin and Vasopressin

27
Q

What analyte is measured using the Jaffe reaction?
a. Urea
b. Uric acid
c. Ammonia
d. Creatinine

A

Creatinine

28
Q

Apolipoprotein A is the primary protein component of:
a. HDL
b. LDL
c. VLDL
d. None of these

A

HDL

29
Q
  1. In cystic fibrosis, which sweat electrolytes are elevated?

a. Calcium and chloride
b. Chloride and sodium
c. Sodium and potassium
d. Potassium and chloride

A

Chloride and sodium

30
Q
  1. Odor of bitter almond:
    a. Cyanide poisoning
    b. Ethanol poisoning
    c. Arsenic poisoning
    d. CO poisoning
A

Cyanide poisoning

31
Q

Which vitamin would be affected if a patient was diagnosed with a disorder involving fat absorption?
a. Vitamin B12
b. Ascorbic acid
c. Thiamine
d. Vitamin K

A

Vitamin K

32
Q

The principal estrogen produced during pregnancy is:
a. Estrone
b. Estradiol
c. Estriol
d. Corticosterone

A

Estriol

33
Q

The reference range for blood pH is:
a. 7.28 – 7.34
b. 7.33 – 7.37
c. 7.35 – 7.45
d. 7.45 – 7.50

A

7.35 – 7.45

34
Q

TSH is produced in the:
a. Adenohypophysis
b. Neurohypophysis
c. Adrenal cortex
d. Thyroid

A

Adenohypophysis

35
Q

Which protein is produced in decreased amount in Wilson’s disease?
a. Albumin
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. Haptoglobin
d. Hemopexin

A

Ceruloplasmin

36
Q

A patient’s blood gas results are as follows:

pH = 7.26
dCO2 = 2.0 mmol/L
HCO3– = 29 mmol/L

These results would be classified as:

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

A

Respiratory acidosis

37
Q

Which of the following will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left?
a. Anemia
b. Hyperthermia
c. Hypercapnia
d. Alkalosis

A

Alkalosis

38
Q

The following conditions are all causes of alkalosis. Which condition is associated with respiratory (rather than metabolic) alkalosis?
a. Anxiety
b. Hypovolemia
c. Hyperaldosteronism
d. Hypoparathyroidism

A

Anxiety

39
Q

Which of the following biochemical processes is promoted by insulin?
a. Glycogenolysis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Lipolysis
d. Uptake of glucose by cells

A

Uptake of glucose by cells

40
Q

Which of the following hormones promotes hyperglycemia?
a. Calcitonin
b. Growth hormone
c. Aldosterone
d. Renin

A

Growth hormone

41
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

a. Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis

b. Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus

c. Usually occurs after age 40

d. Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis

A

Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis

42
Q

Which of the following is associated with low serum iron and high total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)?

a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Hepatitis
c. Nephrosis
d. Noniron deficiency anemias

A

Iron deficiency anemia

43
Q

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a falsely high creatinine clearance result?

a. The patient uses the midstream void procedure when collecting his or her urine

b. The patient adds tap water to the urine container because he or she forgets to save one of the urine samples

c. The patient does not empty his or her bladder at the conclusion of the test

d. The patient empties his or her bladder at the start of the test and adds the urine to the collection

A

The patient empties his or her bladder at the start of the test and adds the urine to the collection

44
Q

Uric acid is derived from the:

a. Oxidation of proteins
b. Catabolism of purines
c. Oxidation of pyrimidines
d. Reduction of catecholamines

A

Catabolism of purines

45
Q

Select the reagent needed in the coupling enzyme reaction used to generate a colored product in the cholesterol oxidase method for cholesterol.

a. Cholestahexaene
b. H2O2
c. 4-Aminoantipyrine
d. Cholest-4-ene-3-one

A

4-Aminoantipyrine

46
Q

Which of the following methods for HDL cholesterol is the reference method?

a. Manganese–heparin
b. Magnesium–phosphotungstate
c. Magnesium–dextran
d. Ultracentrifugation

A

Ultracentrifugation

47
Q

In which condition is the LD most likely to be within normal limits?

a. Hepatic carcinoma
b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Acute appendicitis
d. Crush injury

A

Acute appendicitis

48
Q

Which of the following cardiac markers is consistently increased in persons who exhibit unstable angina?

a. Troponin C
b. Troponin T
c. CK-MB
d. Myoglobinc

A

Troponin T

49
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones is often decreased by approximately 25% in the serum
    of pregnant women who have a fetus with Down syndrome?

a. Estriol (E3)
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
c. Progesterone
d. Estradiol (E2)

A

Estriol (E3)

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer?

a. CA-15-3
b. CA-19-9
c. CA-125
d. CEA

A

CA-125

Review For Board Exam (10 decks)

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