Classifications- Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Gustilo-Anderson classification used for?

A

Open Fractures

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2
Q

Grade 1 Gustilo-Anderson description and antibx choice

A

Clean wound <1cm in diameter (more so “trauma from within”)

Antibx choice: 1st gen cephalosporin (Ancef)

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3
Q

Grade 2 Gustilo-Anderson description and antibx choice

A

Wound 1-5cm in diameter w/ soft tissue damage

Antibx choice: Ancef and aminoglycoside (gentamycin)

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4
Q

Grade 3 Gustilo-Anderson description and antibx choice

A

Wound >5cm in diameter w/ extensive soft tissue damage
IIIA- adequate soft tissue coverage
IIIB- extensive soft tissue damage w/ periosteal stripping and massive contamination
IIIC- arterial damage requiring primary repair

Antibx choice: Ancef/High dose PCN, clindamycin (not Moore), aminoglycoside

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5
Q

A patient presents with a gunshot wound, how would you classify this with the Gustilo-Anderson classification?

A

Controversial-
Dr. Moore believes that GSWs are automatically considered a GA grade III.
Some believe that these injuries could be as low as a grade I

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6
Q

What is the Resnik classification used for?

A

Depth of foreign body w/ respect to surgical layers

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7
Q

Resnick Grade I description

A

Superficial/cutaneous (usually visible and w/o local signs of infection)

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8
Q

Resnick Grade II description

A

Subcutaneous or articular w/o signs of infection

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9
Q

Resnick Grade IIIA description

A

Subcutaneous or articular w/ signs of infection

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10
Q

Resnick Grade IIIB description

A

Bone penetration w/o signs of infection

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11
Q

Resnick Grade IV description

A

Bone penetration w/ known OM

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12
Q

What is the Patzakis classification used for?

A

It describes the anatomy where OM occurs/is occurring

*Dr. Moore uses this when asking where a puncture wound/foreign body is located

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13
Q

What is a Patzakis zone 1?

A

Toe to MT head (50% incidence of OM)

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14
Q

What is a Patzakis zone 2?

A

Midfoot (17% incidence of OM)

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15
Q

What is a Patzakis zone 3?

A

Calcaneus (33% incidence of OM)

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16
Q

What is the Jahss classification used for?

A

1st MPJ injury

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17
Q

Jahss Grade I

A

intersesamoidal ligament intact, no sesamoid fracture

**Only one to require open reduction for treatment (all others are closed/conservative)

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18
Q

Jahss Grade IIA

A

intersesamoidal ligament and plantar capsule distal to the sesamoids ruptured, and no sesamoid fracture

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19
Q

Jahss Grade IIB

A

rupture of intersesamoidal ligament and fracture of at least one sesamoid

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20
Q

Jahss Grade II Variant

A

rupture of intersesamoidal ligament and separation of bipartite sesamoid

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21
Q

What is the Stewart classification used for?

A

Proximal 5th MT base fractures

22
Q

Stewart classification Type I

A

Jones fracture, transverse fracture of metaphyseal/diaphyseal junction

23
Q

Stewart classification Type II

A

Intra-articular avulsion fracture

24
Q

Stewart classification Type III

A

Extra-articular avulsion fracture

25
Q

Stewart classification Type IV

A

Intra-articular comminuted fracture

26
Q

Stewart classification type V

A

Extra-articular fracture through the epiphysis

27
Q

What is the Hardcastle classification used for?

A

Lisfranc’s fractures

28
Q

Hardcastle Type A

A

Homolateral or homomedial (every single MT has disarticulated from proximal attachment)

29
Q

Hardcastle Type B

A

Partial incongruity (1st MT is stable, but lesser MTs are displaced or vice versa)

30
Q

Hardcastle Type C

A

Divergent (some MTs are going one way and others are going a different way)

31
Q

What are the two classification systems used for Lisfranc’s fractures?

A

Hardcastle

Quenu & Kuss (types A-C, very similar to Hardcastle)

32
Q

What is the Watson&Jones classification used for?

A

Navicular fractures

33
Q

Watson&Jones Type I

A

Avulsion fracture off tuberosity by PT tendon

34
Q

Watson&Jones Type II

A

Dorsal lip fracture

35
Q

Watson&Jones Type III

A

Body fracture
IIIa- transverse fracture, non-displaced
IIIb- transverse fracture, displaced

36
Q

Watson&Jones Type IV

A

Stress fracture

37
Q

What is the AMA Standard Nomenclature System used for?

A

Ankle sprains

38
Q

AMA Standard Nomenclature System Grade I

A

Microscopic tear of ligament, mild swelling/tenderness, no joint instability, WB w/ minimal pain

39
Q

AMA Standard Nomenclature System Grade II

A

Incomplete tear of ligament, moderate pain/swelling/ecchymosis, mild to moderate joint instability, WB w/ pain

40
Q

AMA Standard Nomenclature System Grade III

A

Complete tear of ligament, severe pain/swelling/ecchymosis, significant joint instability, unable to WB

41
Q

What is the O’Donaghue classification used for?

A

Ankle sprains

Most commonly used

42
Q

O’Donaghue Type I

A

Single tear (ATFL only)

43
Q

O’Donaghue Type II

A

Partial rupture (ATFL and CFL)

44
Q

O’Donaghue Type III

A

Complete rupture (ATFL, CFL, PTFL)

45
Q

What is the Mann&Coughlin classification used for? What makes it special?

A

Ankle sprains–> describes injury AND suggests treatment

46
Q

Mann&Coughlin Type I

A

Stable ankle, via clinical testing, treat symptomatically only

47
Q

Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 1

A

Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt
Group 1: non-athelete or older patient–> functional treatment (RICE, physical therapy, heel raises, exercises w/ resistance band, ankle brace

48
Q

Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type A

A

Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt
Group 2: young and very active
Type A: negative stress radiograph (functional treatment)

49
Q

Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type B

A

Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt
Group 2: young and very active
Type B: (+) anterior drawer and (+) talar tilt

50
Q

Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type C

A

Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt
Group 2: young and very active
Type C: (+) anterior drawer and talar tilt, w/ 2mm+ displacement of calcaneus on the talus

51
Q

Which Mann&Coughlin classifications indicate open surgical repair?

A

Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type B & C