Classic/Relevant treatments

Question 1

Absence seizures

Answer 1

Ethosuximide

Question 2

Acute gout attack (2)

Answer 2

NSAIDs > colchicine

Question 3

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

Answer 3

All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)

Question 4

ADHD (2)

Answer 4

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

Question 5

Alcohol abuse (4)

Answer 5

AA + disulfram, naltrexone, or acamprosate for patient

Al-Anon for family

Question 6

Alcohol withdrawl

Answer 6

Benzodiazepines

Question 7

Anorexia (2)

Answer 7

Nutrition, psychotherapy

Question 8

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

Answer 8

Heparin

Question 9

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

Answer 9

Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, tocainide, mexiletine)

Question 10

B12 deficiency

Answer 10

Vitamin B12 supplementation

Question 11

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (2)

Answer 11

Tamsulosin, finasteride

Question 12

Bipolar disorder (4)

Answer 12

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

Question 13

Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman

Answer 13

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

Question 14

Buerger’s disease

Answer 14

Smoking cessation

Question 15

Bulimia

Answer 15

SSRIs

Question 16

Candida albicans (1 each for systemic, thrush, and vaginitis)

Answer 16

Amphotericin B (systemic)
Nystatin (oral thrush)
Azoles (vaginal)

Question 17

Carcinoid syndrome

Answer 17

Octreotide

Question 18

Chlamydia trachomatis (2 for sex; 1 for eyes)

Answer 18

Doxycycline ( + cefatriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin in eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

Question 19

Chronic gout (3)

Answer 19

Probenecid (underexcretor),

allopurinol or febuxostat (overproducer)

Question 20

Chronic hepatitis

Answer 20

IFN-alpha

Question 21

CML

Answer 21

Imatinib

Question 22

Clostridium botulinum

Answer 22

Antitoxin

Question 23

Clostridium difficile (DOC and refractory)

Answer 23

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

Question 24

Clostridium tetani (3)

Answer 24

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

Question 25

Crohn's disease (4)

Answer 25

Corticosteroids, infliximab, MTX, azathioprine

Question 26

Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 26

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

Question 27

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

Answer 27

Mesna

Question 28

Cystic fibrosis

Answer 28

N-acetylcystine + antipseudomonal prophylaxis (tobramycin/azithromycin)

Question 29

Cytomegalovirus

Answer 29

Ganciclovir

Question 30

Depression

Answer 30

SSRIs (first-line)

Question 31

Diabetes insipidus

Answer 31

Desmopressin (central); HCTZ, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

Question 32

Diabetes mellitus type 1

Answer 32

Dietary intervention (low sugar) + insulin replacement

Question 33

Diabetes mellitus type 2

Answer 33

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (possible)

Question 34

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Answer 34

Fluids, insulin, K+

Question 35

Enterococci

Answer 35

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

Question 36

Erectile dysfunction

Answer 36

Sildenafil, vardenafil

Question 37

ER-positive breast cancer

Answer 37

Tamoxifen

Question 38

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

Answer 38

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

Question 39

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

Answer 39

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 40

Generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 40

Buspirone

Question 41

Heparin toxicity (acute)

Answer 41

Protamine sulfate

Question 42

HER2/neu-positive breast cancer

Answer 42

Trastuzumab

Question 43

Hyperaldosteronism

Answer 43

Spironolactone

Question 44

Hypercholesterolemia

Answer 44

Statin (first line)

Question 45

Hypertriglyceridemia

Answer 45

Fibrate

Question 46

Immediate anticoagulation

Answer 46

Heparin

Question 47

Infertility

Answer 47

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile)

Question 48

Influenza

Answer 48

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

Question 49

Legionella pneumophila

Answer 49

Erythromycin

Question 50

Long-term anticoagulation

Answer 50

Warfarin

Question 51

Malaria

Answer 51

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

Question 52

Malignant hyperthermia

Answer 52

Dantrolene

Question 53

Medical abortion

Answer 53

Mifepristone

Question 54

Migraine

Answer 54

Sumatriptan

Question 55

MRSA

Answer 55

Vancomycin

Question 56

Multiple sclerosis

Answer 56

Beta-IFN, immunosuppression, natalizumab

Question 57

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 57

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

Question 58

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer 58

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia)

Question 59

Neisseria meningitidis

Answer 59

Penicillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 60

Neural tube defect prevention

Answer 60

Prenatal folic acid

Question 61

Osteomalacia/rickets

Answer 61

Vitamin D supplementation

Question 62

Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 62

Indomethacin

Question 63

Osteoporosis

Answer 63

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

Question 64

Pheochromocytoma

Answer 64

Alpha antagonists (e.g. phenoxybenzamine)

Question 65

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Answer 65

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

Question 66

Prolactinoma

Answer 66

Bromocriptine (dopamin agonists)

Question 67

Prostate cancer/uterine fibrinoids

Answer 67

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

Question 68

Prostate carcinoma

Answer 68

Flutamide

Question 69

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer 69

Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside

Question 70

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

Answer 70

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

Question 71

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 71

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (especially in the context of aplastic anemia)

Question 72

Ringworm infections

Answer 72

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

Question 73

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

Answer 73

5-HT2A antagonists (e.g. 2nd gen antipsychotics)

Question 74

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

Answer 74

D2 receptor antagonists (e.g. 1st and 2nd gen antipsychotics)

Question 75

SIADH

Answer 75

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

Question 76

Sickle cell anemia

Answer 76

Hydroxyurea (incr fetal Hb)

Question 77

Sporothrix schenckii

Answer 77

Oral KCl

Question 78

Stable angina

Answer 78

Siblingual nitroglycerine

Question 79

Staph aureus

Answer 79

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphococcal penicillins) MRSA: vanc

Question 80

Staph bovis

Answer 80

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

Question 81

Strep pneumoniae

Answer 81

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

Question 82

Strep pyogenes

Answer 82

Penicillin prophylaxis

Question 83

Temporal arteritis

Answer 83

High-dose steroids

Question 84

Tonic-clonic seizures

Answer 84

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

Question 85

Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 85

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Question 86

Treponema palladium

Answer 86

Penicillin

Question 87

Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer 87

Metronidazone (patient and partner)

Question 88

Ulcerative colitis

Answer 88

5-ASA, infliximab

Question 89

UTI prophylaxis

Answer 89

TMP-SMX

Question 90

Warfarin toxicity

Answer 90

Fresh frozen plasma (acute); vitamin K (chronic)

Question 91

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Answer 91

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids