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FA step 1-- Rapid Review > Classic/Relevant Treatments > Flashcards

Classic/Relevant Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Acute gout attack

A

NSAIDs, colchicine

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2
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

All-trans retinoic acid

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3
Q

ADHD

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

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4
Q

Alcohol withdrawl

A

Benzodiazepines

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5
Q

Anorexia

A

SSRIs

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6
Q

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

A

Heparin

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7
Q

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic

lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide

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8
Q

Alcohol abuse

A

AA + disulfiram for patients and Al-Anon for family

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9
Q

B12 deficiency

A

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

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10
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulsin, finasteride

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11
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Lithium, valproate, Carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

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12
Q

Breast cancer in postmenopausal women

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

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13
Q

Burger’s disease

A

Smoking cessation

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14
Q

Bulimia

A

SSRIs

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15
Q

Candida albicans

A

Amphotericin B (Systemic), nystatin (oral thrush, esophagitis)

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16
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Octreotide

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17
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (+ Ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), Erythromycin eyedrops (prophylaxis in infants)

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18
Q

Chronic gout

A

Probenecid (underexcretor), allopurinol (overproducer)

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19
Q

Chronic hepatitis

A

INF-Alpha

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20
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

Imatinib

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21
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

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22
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

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23
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

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24
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab

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25
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

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26
Q

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mesna

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27
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

N-acetylcysteine + antipseudomonal prophylaxis (tobramycin/azithromycin)

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28
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Ganciclovir

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29
Q

Depression

A

SSRIs (first-line)

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30
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin (central); Hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, Amiloride (nephrogenic)

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31
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 1

A

Dietary intervention (low-sugar) + insulin replacement

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32
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 2

A

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (possible)

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33
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluids, insulin, potassium

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34
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

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35
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil

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36
Q

ER-positive breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

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37
Q

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

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38
Q

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

A

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

39
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Buspirone

40
Q

Heparin toxicity (acute)

A

Protamine sulfate

41
Q

HER2/neu-positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

42
Q

Hypoaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

43
Q

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Statin (first-line)

44
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrate

45
Q

Immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin

46
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile)

47
Q

Influenza

A

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

48
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Erythromycin

49
Q

Long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

50
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

51
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

52
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

53
Q

Migraine

A

Sumatriptan

54
Q

MRSA

A

Vancomycin

55
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

Beta-interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

56
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

57
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent chlamydia)

58
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

Penicillin/Ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

59
Q

Neural tube defect prevention

A

Prenatal folic acid

60
Q

Osteomalacia/rickets

A

Vitamin D supplementation

61
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

62
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

A

Indomethacin

63
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Alpha-antagonists (e.g., phenoxybenzamine)

64
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

TMP–SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

65
Q

Prolactinoma

A

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

66
Q

Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

67
Q

Prostate carcinoma

A

Flutamide

68
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Antipseudomonal penicillin + Aminoglycoside

69
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

A

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

70
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (especially in context of aplastic anemia)

71
Q

Ringworm infections

A

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

72
Q

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

A

5–HT2A antagonists (e.g., first- and second-generation antipsychotics)

73
Q

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

A

D2 receptor antagonists (e.g., first- and second-generation antipsychotics)

74
Q

SIADH

A

Demeclocycline, Lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

75
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea (Increase fetal hemoglobin)

76
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Oral potassium iodide

77
Q

Stable angina

A

Sublingual nitroglycerin

78
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin

79
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

80
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

81
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

82
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

High-dose steroids

83
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

84
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

85
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin

86
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

87
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

5-ASA, infliximab

88
Q

UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

89
Q

Warfarin toxicity

A

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)

90
Q

Wegener’s granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

91
Q

Absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

92
Q

Corrects atropine overdose

A

Physostigmine

93
Q

Organophosphate poisoning treatment

Drooling farmer–>cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

A

Atropine + Pralidoxime

FA step 1-- Rapid Review (4 decks)

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