Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Terminology > Chpt 10 & 17 > Flashcards

Chpt 10 & 17 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Microscopic fiber leading from the cell body that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell _____

A

axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

large, interlacing network of nerves ______

A

plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

outer region of the largest part of the brain (cerebrum); composed of gray matter.

A

cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

glial cell that transports water and salts between capillaries and nerve cells

A

astrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

glial cell that produces myelin

A

oligodendroglial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord at the level of the second lumbar vertebra _____

A

cauda equina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

fatty tissue that surrounds the axon of a nerve cell ______

A

myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

dura mater (definition)

A

outermost meningeal layer surrounding the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CNS

A

brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PNS

A

nerves outside the brain and spinal cord; cranial, spinal and autonomic nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

arachnoid membrane

A

middle meningeal membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hypothalamus

A

part of the brain below the thalamus; controls sleep, appetite, body temp and secretions from the pituitary gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

synapse

A

space through which a nerve impulse is transmitted from a nerve cell to another nerve cell or to a muscle or gland cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sympathetic nerves

A

autonomic nerves that influence body functions involuntarily in terms of stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

medulla oblongata

A

part of the brain just above the spinal cord that controls breathing, heartbeat and the size of blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pons

A

part of the brain anterior to the cerebellum and between the medulla and upper parts of the brain; connects these parts of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cerebellum

A

posterior part of the brain that controls muscular coordination and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

thalamus

A

part of the brain below the cerebrum; relay center that conducts impulses between the spinal cord and the cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ventricles of the brain

A

canals in the interior of the brain that are filled with CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

brainstem

A

lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord (includes the pons and medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cerebrum

A

largest part of the brain; controls voluntary muscle movement, vision, speech, hearing, thought, memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ganglion

A

collection of nerve cell bodies outside the brain and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

pia mater

A

innermost meningeal membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

motor nerves

A

carry messages away from (efferent) the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sensory nerves

A

carry messages toward (afferent) the brain and spinal cord from receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

sulci

A

grooves in the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

subarachnoid space

A

contains CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

gyri

A

elevations in the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

parenchymal cell

A

essential cell of the nervous system; a neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

glial cells

A

connective and supportive (stromal) tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

disease of the brain

A

encelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

epidural hematoma

A

collection of blood above the dura mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

leptomeningitis

A

inflammation of the pia and arachnoid membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

anencelopathy

A

condition of absence of a brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

poliomyelitis

A

inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

meningeal

A

pertaining to the membranes around the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

radiculopathy

A

disease of nerve roots (of spinal nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

myelomeningocele

A

hernia of the spinal cord and meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

vagal

A

pertaining to the 10th cranial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

intrathecal

A

pertaining to within a sheath through the meninges and into the sub arachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

meningioma

A

tumor of the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

glioma

A

tumor of the neuroglial cells (brain tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

subdural hematoma

A

mass of blood below the dura mater (outermost meningeal membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

dyslexia (definition)

A

reading disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ataxia (definition)

A

condition of decreased coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

hyperesthesia

A

condition of increased sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

narcolepsy

A

seizure of sleep; uncontrollable compulsion to sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

aphasia

A

difficulty with speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

motor ataxia

A

inability to perform a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

hemoparesis

A

weakness in the right or left half of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

causalgia

A

severe burning pain due to nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

paraplegia

A

paralysis in the lower part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

fainting

A

syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

neurasthenia

A

nervous exhaustion (lack of strength) and fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

analgesia

A

lack of sensitivity to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

motor aphasia

A

difficulty in speaking ( patient cannot articular words but can understand speech and knows what he/she wants to say)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

paresis

A

weakness and partial loss of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

quadriplegia

A

paralysis in all four extremities (damage is to the cervical part of the spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

asthenia

A

no strength (weakness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

comatose

A

pertaining to coma (loss of consciousness in which a patient cannot be aroused)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

paresthesia

A

condition of abnormal sensations (prickling, tingling, burning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

hypalgesia

A

diminished sensation to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

dyskinesia

A

impairment to the ability to perform voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

migraine

A

recurrent vascular headache with severe pain of unilateral onset and photobia (sensitivity to light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

destruction of the myelin sheath (demyelination) and it’s replacement by hard plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

epilepsy

A

sudden, transient disturbances of brain function cause seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

myelomeningocele (definition)

A

the spinal column is imperfectly joined (split vertebra occurs), and part of the meninges and spinal cord can herniate out of the spinal cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

amyotropic lateral sclerosis

A

atrophy of muscles and paralysis caused by damage to motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain stem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Huntington disease

A

patient displays bizarre, abrupt, involuntary, dance-like movements, as well as decline in mental function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

hydrocephalus

A

CSF accumulates in the head (in the ventricles of the brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Myesthenia gravis

A

loss of muscle strength due to the inability of a NT (Ach) to transmit impulses from nerve cells to muscle cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

parkinson disease

A

Degeneration of nerves in the basal ganglia occurring in later life, leading to tremors, shuffling gait, and muscle stiffness; dopamine is deficient in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Alzheimer disease

A

deterioration of mental capacity (dementia); autopsy shows cerebral cortex atrophy, widening of cerebral sulci, and microscopic neurofibrillary tangles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

astrocytoma

A

tumor of neurological glial brain cells (astrocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

pyogenic meningitis

A

inflammation of the meninges (bacterial infection with pus formation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

tourette syndrome

A

involuntary spasmotic twitching movements (tics), uncontrollable vocal sounds and inappropriate words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

cerebral contusion

A

bruising of brain tissues as a result of a direct trauma to the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

A

disruption of normal blood supply to the brain ; stroke or cerebral infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

cerebral concussion

A

traumatic brain injury caused by blow to the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

herpes zoster

A

neurologic condition caused by infection with herpes zoster virus; blisters form along the course of peripheral nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

cerebral embolus

A

blockage of a blood vessel in the cerebrum caused by material from another part of the body that suddenly occludes the vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

cerebral thrombosis

A

blockage of a blood vessel in the cerebrum caused by for formation of a clot in the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

cerebral hemorrhage

A

collection of blood in the brain (can cause a stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

cerebral aneurysm

A

widening of a blood vessel (artery) in the cerebrum; can lead to burst and lead to CVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

HIV encephalopathy

A

brain disease (dimentia and encephalitis) caused by infection with AIDS virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Describe what happens in an MRI of the brain

A

use of magnetic waves to create an image (in frontal, transverse or sagittal plane) of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe what happens in a stereotactic radiosurgery with a gamma knife

A

an instrument (stereotactic) is fixed onto the skill and locates a target by 3-D measurement; gamma radiation or proton beams are used to treat deep brain lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

lack of nerve strength

A

neurasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

inability to speak

A

aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

inability to perform purposeful actions

A

apraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

condition of insensitivity to pain

A

analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

condition of loss of sensation

A

anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

sensations of tingling, numbness, or “pins and needles”

A

paresthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

lack of coordination

A

ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

excessive movement

A

hyperkinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

abnormal, involuntary, spasmodic movements

A

dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

developmental reading disorder

A

dyslexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

partial paralysis

A

paresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

electroencephalography (EEG)

A

procedure to diagnose abnormal electrical activity of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

positron emission tomography (PET)

A

radioactive materials, such as glucose, are taken up by the brain, and images are recorded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Magnetic resonance imagine (MRI)

A

diagnostic procedure that allows excellent visualization of the soft tissue in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

A

stroke; embolus, hemorrhage, or thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

A

neurologic symptoms and/or signs due to temporary interference of blood supply to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

cerebralspinal fluid (CSF)

A

this fluid is analyzed for abnormal blood cells, chemicals and protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Maria had such severe headaches that she could find relief only with strong analgesics. Her condition of ______ was debilitating

A

migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Paul was in a come after his high-speef car accident. His physicians were concerned that he has suffered a (palsy, myelomenigocele, contusion and subdural hematoma)

A

contusion and subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Dick went to the emergency department complaining dizziness, nausea, and headache. The physician, suspecting increased ICP, prescribed corticosteroids, and Dick’s symptoms disappeared. They returned, however, when the steroids were discontinued. A/an ______ revealed a large brain lesion. It was removed surgically and determined to be a/an (embolus, glioblastoma multiforme, migraine)

A

MRI, glioblastoma multiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Dorothy felt weakness in her hands and numbness in her arm, and noticed blurred vision, all signs of ______ . Her physician requested ______ to assess any damage to the cerebral blood vessels and possible stroke.

A

TIA, MRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

To rule out bacterial (epilepsy, encephalomalacia, meningitis), Dr. Phillips, a pediatrician, requested that a/an (EEG, PET scan, LP) be performed on the febrile (feverish) child.

A

meningitis, LP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

part of the brain that controls sleep, appetite, temperature, and secretions of the pituitary gland.

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

pertaining to fainting

A

syncopal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

abnormal tingling sensations

A

esthesias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

slight paralysis

A

paresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

inflammation of a spinal nerve root

A

radiculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

inability to speak correctly

A

aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

movements and behavior that are not purposeful

A

apraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

lack of muscular coordination

A

ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

paralysis on half the body

A

hemiplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

paralysis in lower half of the body

A

paraplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

paralysis in all four limbs

A

quadriplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

nervous exhaustion and fatigue

A

neurasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

phacoemulsification with IOL; OS is procedure for

A

IOL = intraocular lens
OS- = left eye
cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

blepharoplasty is the procedure for

A

ptosis of the eyelid skin

124
Q

sclera buckle is the procedure for

A

retinal detachment

125
Q

vitrectomy is the procedure for

A

diabetic retinoplasty

126
Q

radical mastoidectomy is the procedure for

A

chronic infection of a bone behind the ear

127
Q

keratoplasty is the procedure for

A

scarred and torn cornea

128
Q

cochlear implant is the procedure for

A

severe deafness

129
Q

laser photocoagulation of the macula is the procedure for

A

macular degeneration

130
Q

incision and drainage of hordeolum is the procedure for

A

chronic stye

131
Q

conjunctiva

A

Delicate membrane lining the eyelids and covering the anterior of the eyeball

132
Q

cornea

A

Fibrous layer of clear tissue that extends over the anterior portion of the eyeball

133
Q

sclera

A

Tough, white outer layer of the eyeball

134
Q

choroid

A

Vascular layer of the eyeball that is continuous with the iris

135
Q

ciliary body

A

Contains muscles that control the shape of the lens and secrete aqueous humor

136
Q

lens

A

transparent structure behind the iris and in front of the vitreous humor; it refracts light rays onto the retina.
also biconvex

137
Q

retina

A

contains sensitive cells called rods and cones that transform light energy into nerve impulses.

138
Q

vitreous humor

A

jelly-like material behind the lens that helps maintain the shape of the eyeball

139
Q

The region at the back of the eye where the optic nerve meets the retina is the ______

A

optic disc

140
Q

The normal adjustment of the lens (becoming fatter) to bring an object into focus for near vision on the retina is ______

A

accommodation

141
Q

a yellowish region on the retina lateral to the optic disc is the ______

A

macula

142
Q

The tiny pit or depression in the retina that is the region of clearest vision is the ______

A

fovea centralis

143
Q

the bending of light rays by the cornea, lens, and fluids of the eyes is ______

A

refraction

144
Q

The point at which the fibers of the optic nerve cross the brain is the ______

A

optic chiasm

145
Q

The ______ is the area behind the cornea and in front of the lens and iris. It contains the aqueous humor.

A

anterior chamber

146
Q

The posterior, inner part of the eye is the ______

A

fundus

147
Q

space and fluid in front of the eye

A

anterior chamber and aqueous humor

148
Q

space and soft, jelly-like material in the posterior of the eye

A

vitreous chamber and vitreous humor

149
Q

retina

A

light-sensitive inner nerve cell layer; rods and cones

150
Q

optic nerve fibers

A

cranial nerve

151
Q

relay center of the brain

A

thalamus

152
Q

visual region of the brain

A

cerebral cortex (occipital lobe)

153
Q

anisocoria

A

condition of pupils of unequal size (anis/o = unequal)

154
Q

cycloplegic

A

pertaining to paralysis of the ciliary muscles

155
Q

palpebral

A

pertaining to the eyelid

156
Q

mydriasis

A

condition of enlargement of the pupil

157
Q

miosis

A

condition of constriction of the pupil

158
Q

papilledema

A

swelling in the region of the optic disc

159
Q

photobia

A

condition of sensitivity (“fear of”) light

160
Q

scotoma

A

blind spot; area of darkened (diminished) vision surrounded by clear vision.

161
Q

inflammation of an eyelid

A

blepharitis

162
Q

inflammation of a tear gland

A

dacryadenitis

163
Q

inflammation of the cornea

A

keratitis

164
Q

prolapse of the eyelid

A

blepharoptosis

165
Q

pertaining to within the eye

A

intraocular

166
Q

fibrous layer of clear tissue over the front of the eyeball has a defect resulting from infection

A

corneal ulcer

167
Q

inflammation of the vascular layer of the eye (iris, ciliary body, and choriod)

A

uveitis

168
Q

condition of dry eyes

A

xerophthalmia

169
Q

absence of vision in half of the visual field

A

hemianopsia

170
Q

absence of the lens of the eye

A

aphakia

171
Q

amblyopia

A

decreased (dim) vision; lazy eye

172
Q

hyperopia

A

farsightedness

173
Q

presbyopia

A

decreased vision at near; resulting from old age

174
Q

myopia

A

nearsightedness

175
Q

nyctalopia

A

night blindness; decreased vision at night

176
Q

diplopia

A

double vision

177
Q

astigmatism

A

defective curvature of the lens and cornea leading to blurred vision

178
Q

In the myopic eye either the eyeball is too ______ or the refractive power of the lens is too ______ , so that the image is blurred and comes to a focus in ______ of the retina. They type of lens used to correct this is a/an ______ lens.

A

long, strong, front, concave

179
Q

In the hyperopic eye, the eyeball is too ______ or the refractive power of the lens is too ______ , so that the image is blurred and focused in ______ of the retina. They type of lens used to correct this is a/an ______ lens.

A

short, weak, back, convex

180
Q

retinal microaneurysms, hemorrhages, dilation of retinal veins, ad neovascularization occur secondary to an abnormal endocrine condition

A

diabetic retinopathy

181
Q

2 layers of the retina separate from each other

A

retinal detachment

182
Q

clouding of the lens caused by decreased vision

A

cataract

183
Q

loss of central vision caused by deterioration of the macula of the retina

A

macular degeneration

184
Q

localized, purulent infection of a sebaceous gland in the eyelid

A

hordeolum (stye)

185
Q

small, firm, cystic mass on the eyelid; formed as a result of chronic inflammation of a sebaceous gland

A

chalazion

186
Q

pigmented scarring forms throughout the retina

A

retinitis pigmentosa

187
Q

repetitive rhythmic movements of one or both eyes

A

nystagmus

188
Q

dacry/o

A

tears

189
Q

kerat/o

A

cornea

190
Q

palpebr/o

A

eyelid

191
Q

cor/o

A

pupil

192
Q

phac/o

A

lens

193
Q

phak/o

A

lens

194
Q

scot/o

A

darkness

195
Q

OU

A

both eyes

196
Q

VA

A

visual acuity

197
Q

VF

A

visual field

198
Q

IOL

A

intraocular lens

199
Q

IOP

A

intraocular pressure

200
Q

PERRLA

A

pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation

201
Q

ultrasonic vibrations break up the lens, and it is aspirated from the eye

A

phacoemulsification

202
Q

measurement of the tension or pressure within the eye; glaucome test

A

tonometry

203
Q

high-energy light radiation beams are used to stop retinal hemorrhaging

A

laser photocoagulation

204
Q

a laser removes corneal tissue (sculpts it) to correct myopia

A

LASIK

205
Q

a structure of a silicone band to the sclera to correct retinal detachment

A

scleral buckle

206
Q

removal (and replacement) of diseased fluid in the chamber behind the lens of the eye

A

vitrectomy

207
Q

corneal transplant surgery

A

keratoplasty

208
Q

labyrinth

A

cochlea and organs of equilibrium (semicircular canals and vestibule)

209
Q

semicircular canals

A

organ of equilibrium in the inner ear

210
Q

auditory (eustachian) tube

A

passageway between the middle ear and the throat

211
Q

stapes

A

3rd ossicle (little bone) of the middle ear

212
Q

organ of Corti

A

region of the cochlea that contains the auditory receptors

213
Q

perilymph & endolymph

A

auditory fluids circulating within the inner ear

214
Q

cerumen

A

wax in the external auditory meatus

215
Q

vestibule

A

central cavity of the inner ear that connect the semicircular canals and the cochlea

216
Q

oval window

A

delicate membrane between the middle and inner ears

217
Q

tympanic membrane

A

eardrum

218
Q

instrument to examine the ear

A

otoscope

219
Q

removal of the 3rd bone of the middle ear

A

stapedectomy

220
Q

pertaining to the auditory tube and throat

A

salpingopharyngeal

221
Q

flow of pus from the ear

A

otopyorrhea

222
Q

instrument to measure hearing

A

audiometer

223
Q

incision of the eardrum

A

myringotomy (tympanotomy)

224
Q

surgical repair of the eardrum

A

myringoplasty (tympanoplasty)

225
Q

small ear

A

microtia

226
Q

inflammation of the middle ear

A

otitis media

227
Q

vertigo

A

sensation of irregular or whirling motion either of oneself or external objects

228
Q

Meniere disease

A

disorder of the labyrinth marked by elevation of ear fluids and pressure with the cochlea (tinnitus, vertigo and nausea result)

229
Q

otosclerosis

A

hardening of the bony tissue of the ossicles of the middle ear

230
Q

tinnitus

A

noise (buzzing and ringing) in the ears

231
Q

cholesteatoma

A

collection of skin cells and cholesterol in a sac with in the middle of the ear.

232
Q

suppurative otitis media

A

inflammation of the middle ear with bacterial infection and pus collection.

233
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

benign tumor arising from the acoustic nerve in the brain

234
Q

AS

A

left ear

235
Q

AD

A

right eat

236
Q

ENG

A

electronystagmography; a test of balance

237
Q

EENT

A

ears, eyes, nose , throat

238
Q

ENT

A

ears, nose, throat

239
Q

PE tube

A

pressure-equlalizing tube; ventilating tube placed in the ear drum.

240
Q

before her second birthday, Sally had so many episodes of (vertigo, otosclerosis, suppurative otitis media) that Dr. Sills recommended the placement of PE tubes

A

suppurative otitis media

241
Q

68 year old Bob experienced blurred vision in the central portion of his visual field. After exam of his (cornea, retina, sclera) his ________ diagnosed his condition as (glaucma, iritis, macular degeneration). The doctor explained that the form of this condition was atrophic or (dry, wet), causing photoreceptor rods and cones to die.

A

retina, ophthalmologist, macular degeneration, dry

242
Q

cerebellopontine

A

pertaining to the pons and cerebellum

243
Q

coma

A

deep sleep

244
Q

comatose

A

pertaining to deep sleep

245
Q

ependymal cell

A

glial cell that lines membranes within the brain and spinal cord and help form CSF

246
Q

absence seizure

A

seizure consisting of momentary clouding of consciousness and loss of awareness of surroundings

247
Q

stroma

A

connective and supporting tissue of an organ. The glial cells are the stromal tissue of the brain.

248
Q

aura

A

prodromal symptoms. peculiar symptoms that precede onset of an epileptic seizure or migraine

249
Q

cerebral palsy

A

paralysis caused by loss of oxygen (hypoxia) or blood flow to the cerebrum during pregnancy or prenatal period.

250
Q

computed tomography (CT)

A

computerized x-ray technique that generates multiple imaged of the brain and spinal cord. Contrast material may be injected to highlight abnormalities and that contrast leaks through the BBB.

251
Q

doppler ultrasound studies

A

sound waves detect blood flow in the carotid and intracranial arteries.

252
Q

embolus

A

clot of material that travels through the blood stream and suddenly blocks a vessel.

253
Q

ictal event

A

pertaining to a sudden, acute onset, as with the convulsions of an epileptic seizure

254
Q

palliative

A

relieving symptoms but not curing them

255
Q

palsy

A

paralysis (partial or complete loss of motor function)

256
Q

positron emission tomography (PET) scan

A

radioactive glucose is injected and then detected in the brain to image the metabolic activity of cells

257
Q

spina bifida

A

congenital defects in the lumbar spinal column caused by imperfect union of vertebral parts (neural tube defect). Basically lumbar vertebrae don’t form correctly.

258
Q

tonic-clonic seizure

A

major convulsive seizure marked by sudden loss of consciousness, stiffening of muscles, and twitching jerking movements.

259
Q

comat/o

A

deep sleep (coma)

260
Q

cry/o

A

cold

261
Q

lex/o

A

word/phrase

262
Q

olig/o

A

scanty

263
Q

pont/o

A

pons

264
Q

spin/o

A

spine

265
Q

syncop/o

A

to cut off/ to cut short

266
Q

tax/o

A

order/ coordination

267
Q

thec/o

A

sheath (refers to the meninges)

268
Q

para-

A

near/ beside

269
Q

-ose

A

full of/ pertaining to

270
Q

glioblastoma multiforme

A

brain tumor; malignant astrocytoma

271
Q

cerebral angiography

A

X-ray imaging of the arterial blood vessels in the brain after injection of contrast material

272
Q

tuning fork test

A

test of ear conduction using a vibration source (tuning fork)

273
Q

acous/o

A

hearing

274
Q

ambly/o

A

dull/ dim

275
Q

audi/o

A

hearing (the sense of hearing)

276
Q

audit/o

A

hearing

277
Q

aur/o

A

ear

278
Q

auricul/o

A

hearing

279
Q

glauc/o

A

gray

280
Q

AFP

A

alpha feto protein

281
Q

AVM

A

arteriovenous malformation

282
Q

CT

A

computer tomography

283
Q

EEG

A

electroencephalography

284
Q

MRA

A

magnetic resonance angiography

285
Q

MRI

A

magnetic resonance imaging

286
Q

PET

A

positron emission tomography

287
Q

TBI

A

traumatic brain injury

288
Q

TIA

A

transient ischemic attack

289
Q

tPA

A

tissue plasminogen activator

290
Q

mi/o

A

smaller; less

291
Q

mydr/o

A

widen/ enlarge

292
Q

phot/o

A

light

293
Q

salping/o

A

eustachian tube, auditary tube

294
Q

scler/o

A

sclera, hard

295
Q

-acusis

A

hearing

296
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

297
Q

-opia

A

vision

298
Q

-opsia

A

vision

299
Q

drunsen

A

extracellular debris

300
Q

extropion

A

outward sagging and eversion of the eyelid, leading to improper lacrimation and corneal drying and ulceration

301
Q

entropion

A

outward sagging of the eyelid, causing lashed to rub against the eye, corneal abrasion may result

302
Q

enucleation

A

removal of a entire eyeball

303
Q

exudates

A

fluid leaking from the blood. appear in retina as yellow-white spots as a result of diabetes

304
Q

floaters

A

black spots or filmy shapes. people with retinal detachment experience this

305
Q

photopsia

A

brights flashed of light. people with retinal detachment often experience this

306
Q

xanthelasma

A

raised yellowish plaque on eyelid caused by lipid disorder

Medical Terminology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions