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BSCI222- FInal Exam > Chapters 1-26 > Flashcards

Chapters 1-26 Flashcards

1
Q

Chapt1 (T/F)- Information flows from protein to DNA

A

False

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2
Q

Chapt1(T/F)- DNA is the only repository of information in a cell.

A

False

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3
Q

Chapt1(T/F)- Seasonal differences in the number o eyespots among bicyclus butterflies are due to genetic differences?

A

False

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4
Q

Chapt1-What causes helmets to grow on the heads of some Daphina?

A

Differences in the environment

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5
Q

Chapt1- (T/F) Some traits are controlled by multiple genes

A

True

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6
Q

Chapt1- (T/F) Genetic variants cause phenotypic differences by altering the function of the developmental system

A

True

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7
Q

Chapt1- When did Darwin publish eh ‘Origin of Speices’

A

1859

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8
Q

Chapt1- When did Mendel publish the work of his experiments

A

1866

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9
Q

Chapt1- Who published the first genetic maps?

A

Thomas Morgan

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10
Q

Chapt1- In what year was the rough drafts of the human genome sequence announced?

A

2000

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11
Q

Chapt1- The three major branches of genetics are…

A

Transmission genetics, molecular genetics, and statistical genetics

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12
Q

Chapt2- Who proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance in 1902

A

Sutton

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13
Q

Chapt2- If the centromere is at the end of a chromosome it is…

A

telocentric

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14
Q

Chapt2- The four stages of the cell cycle are…

A

G1, S, G2, M

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15
Q

Chapt2- The correct order of the four stages of mitosis are…

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase,

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16
Q

Chapt2- The correct order of the five stages of Prophase I are…

A

Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakensis

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17
Q

Chapt2- In metaphase I_________ are seperated into seperate cells

A

homologous chromosomes

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18
Q

Chapt2- The synaptonemal complex forms in…

A

Prophase I

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19
Q

Chapt2- The synaptonemal complex is important because it is the site of…

A

recombination

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20
Q

Chapt2- Different forms of a gene are called

A

alleles

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21
Q

Chapt2- Without recombination, an organism with 3 pairs of chromosomes can produce ____ unique gametes

A

8

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22
Q

Chapt2- What are two major advantages of sexual reproduction

A

speed up evolution and remove deleterious mutations

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23
Q

Chapt3- Domestication of many agricultural plants and animals began about

A

10,000BC

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24
Q

Chapt3- The theory of pangenesis suggests…

A

that all parts of the body contribute to the gametes

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25
Q

Chapt3- Performtionists can be divided into…

A

spermists and ovists

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26
Q

Chapt3- Mendel identified strains of pea plants that showed seven different _____ characteristics

A

qualitative

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27
Q

Chapt3- pea flowers are cleistogamous, meaning that…

A

the flowers are closed to pollinators and self-fertilize

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28
Q

Chapt3- Mendel’s observation that some traits were dominant in the F1 hybrids was in contrast to the prevailing theory of…

A

blending inheritance

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29
Q

Chapt3- Mendel’s first law is the law of …

A

segregation

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30
Q

Chapt3- A Punnett square is used to predict…

A

the genotypic proportions arising from a cross

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31
Q

Chapt3- Mendel’s second law is the law of

A

independent assortment

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32
Q

Chapt3- Pascal’s triangle is a useful tool for remembering the coefficients of…

A

the binomial expansion

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33
Q

Chapt3- ‘AND’ statements indicate that the probabilities should be…..

A

multiplied

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34
Q

Chapt3- ‘OR’ statements indicate that the probabilities should be…

A

added

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35
Q

Chapt3- Chi-squared tests are used to evaluate how well the data fits…

A

a model

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36
Q

Chapt3- if the chi-squared value exceeds the critical value, we_____ the null.

A

reject

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37
Q

Chapt4- What characteristics make Drosophila a good model organism for genetic research

A

small size, short generation time, abundant offspring, visible mutations

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38
Q

Chapt4- What are two clues that a gene is sex-linked

A

Ratios differ in reciprocal crosses, different phenotypic ratios in males and females

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39
Q

Chapt4- Non-disjunction is a failure of chromosomes to segregate into separate cells in…

A

in both meiosis and meiosis but most common in meiosis I

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40
Q

Chapt4- The sex of Drosophila is not determined by a Y chromosome but by….

A

the ratio of X chromosome to autosomes

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41
Q

Chapt4- In birds, ______ are the heterogametic sex

A

females

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42
Q

Chapt4- X-inactivation is one mechanism of…

A

dosage compensation

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43
Q

Chapt4- tortoiseshell cats are…

A

females

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44
Q

Chapt4- A protandrous sequential hermaphrodite beings life as a…

A

male

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45
Q

Chapt4- Sex in alligators is determined by…

A

incubation temperature

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46
Q

Chapt4- Sexually antagonistic selection on the orange-blotch color polymorphism in Malawi cichlids led to the evolution of a new __________ sex-determination system

A

ZW

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47
Q

Chapt5- the multiple alleles of the white locus…

A

have different transporter activity

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48
Q

Chapt5- Penetrance refers to…

A

the % of individuals of a particular genotype that express the trait

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49
Q

Chapt5- Blood group antigens are a good example of…

A

codominance

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50
Q

Chapt5- The mouse yellow mutant is…

A

recessive, lethal, and dominant

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51
Q

Chapt5- If mutations are in the same complementation group then they are…

A

in the same gene

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52
Q

Chapt5- The number of complementation groups is an indication of the…

A

number of enzymes in a biochemical pathway

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53
Q

Chapt5- The ratio 9:3:3:1 indicates______ epistasis.

A

no

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54
Q

Chapt5- The ratio 9:7 indicates that the development of the phenotype requires a dominant allele at _____ loci.

A

both

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55
Q

Chapt5- The _____ gene regulated the deposition of pigment in dog hairs

A

agouti

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56
Q

Chapt5- Variants of the _____ gene determine whether dog hair is long or short.

A

fgf5

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57
Q

Chapt6- What pedigree symbol is used for an affected male

A

filled square

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58
Q

Chapt6-How are individuals numbered within each generation of a pedigree

A

birth order

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59
Q

Chapt6-What are the characteristics features of a recessive trait

A

tends to skip generations, affected offspring are usually born to unaffected parents, appears more frequently in offspring of consanguineous marriages

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60
Q

Chapt6-What are the characteristics of a dominant trait

A

does not skip generations

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61
Q

Chapt6-(T/F)The state of Maryland has no eugenic laws currently in effect.

A

False

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62
Q

Chapt6-(T/F) Marriages between first cousins result in an elevated level of birth defects

A

True

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63
Q

Chapt6-(T/F) The pre-natal Quad-screen test can reveal the presence of neural tube defects and trisomies

A

True

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64
Q

Chapt6-(T/F) Newborns are routinely tested for about two dozen inherited metabolic conditions

A

True

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65
Q

Chapt6-(T/F) Most autosomal aneuploidies are full viable

A

False

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66
Q

Chapt6-(T/F) The occurrence of aneuploidies does not depend on maternal age

A

False

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67
Q

Chapt6- (T/F)- HLA haplotypes can e used to calculate the probability of a particular pedigree

A

True

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68
Q

Chapt7- (T/F) The probability of recombination can be computed exactly from the number of DNA base pairs between markers

A

False

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69
Q

Chapt7- (T/F) First division segregation indicates recombination between the marker and the centromere

A

False

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70
Q

Chapt7- A recombination fraction of 0.3 corresponds to…

A

30cM

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71
Q

Chapt7- Distances between map markers that are far apart on a chromosome are typically

A

underestimated

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72
Q

Chapt7- Repulsion refers to the configuration of markers in which mutant alleles…

A

are on different chromosomes

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73
Q

Chapt7- The phase of parental chromosomes can be determined…

A

by identifying the most frequent chromosomes in the progeny

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74
Q

Chapt7- In a three-point cross, the order of the markers can be determined from the…

A

double recombinants

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75
Q

Chapt7- The phenomenon in which chiasma inhibit nearby combinations is called…

A

interference

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76
Q

Chapt7- Mapping functions are designed to…

A

correct unobservable double recombination

77
Q

Chapt7- The Haldane and Kosambi mapping functions differ in their assumptions about the relationship between…

A

distance and interference

78
Q

Chapt8- An idiogram is…

A

a schematic drawing of the karyotype

79
Q

Chapt-8 The giant chromosomes found in Drosophila salivary glands are called “polytene” because…

A

they are composed of many strands of identical DNA

80
Q

Chapt-8 The TWO major types of chromosome-level variation are…

A

structural and ploidy

81
Q

Chapt-8 Chromosome variation has a major effect on development and viability because of changes in….

A

gene expression

82
Q

Chapt-8 (T/F)Pericentric inversion include the centromeres

A

true

83
Q

Chapt-8 Inversions cause a decrease in fertility by…

A

disrupting chromosome pairing in meiosis

84
Q

Chapt-8 Only____ segregation of translocation heterozygotes allows the formation of balanced gametes

A

alternate

85
Q

Chapt-8 Platypus males have a translocation series involving ___ unique Y chromosomes

A

5

86
Q

Chapt-8 Commercial bananas are seedless because they are….

A

triploid

87
Q

Chapt-8 The evolution of modern bread wheat involved two rounds of…

A

allopolyploidy

88
Q

Chapt-8 Heat shock 4 minutes after fertilization of tilapia embryos suppress cell division to produce ______________

A

heterozygous meiotic gynogens

89
Q

Chapt9- Which came first in the evolution of life

A

RNA

90
Q

Chapt9- What was the first enzymatic activity discovered in RNA…

A

self-splicing

91
Q

Chapt9- The genome of E.coli contains approximately…

A

4.6 million base pairs

92
Q

Chapt9- An______ is a bacterial strain that requires nutritional supplements in order to grow on minimal media

A

auxotroph

93
Q

Chapt9- A contransformation frequency of 20% is equivalent to ____ map units

A

5

94
Q

Chapt9- Bacterial conjugation requires direct contact between cells through_______.

A

a cytoplasmic bridge

95
Q

Chapt9- A typical F plasmid contains about ______ basepairs

A

100,000

96
Q

Chapt9- The difference between an F+ cell and an Hfr cell is whether the F plasmid _______

A

has integrated into the host chromosome

97
Q

Chapt9- The alternative life cycles of phage are the____

A

lytic and lysogenic

98
Q

Chapt9- Genetic mapping of bacterial genomes using phage is done using the frequency of ______

A

co-transduction

99
Q

Chapt9- A ‘colony’ of phage cells growing on a lawn of bacteria is called a______

A

plaque

100
Q

Chapt9- Recombination between two phage genomes occurs after____

A

coinfection of the same bacterial cell

101
Q

Chapt10- What were the three experimental treatments used by Avery, MacCleod and McCarty to suggest that DNA is the genetic material?

A

proteinase, RNAse, DNAse

102
Q

(T/F) DNA absorbs UV light

A

True

103
Q

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive 35S is used to label phage

A

protein

104
Q

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive 32P is used to label phage

A

DNA

105
Q

The three components of a nucleotide are…

A

phosphate, sugar, and a nitrogenous base

106
Q

The double-ring purine bases are____

A

adenine and guanine

107
Q

The correct pairing of DNA bases is achieved with the _____ form of the bases

A

keto

108
Q

One turn of the DNA helix contains….

A

10 base pairs

109
Q

The diameter of DNA helix is 2nm or 20 ______

A

angstroms

110
Q

The phosphodiester bond is between the 3’ carbon of the sugar of one nucleotide and the _________ of the sugar of the next base.

A

5’ carbon

111
Q

What are the difference in sugars of DNA and RNA nucleotides?

A

The 2’ OH group is NOT found in DNA

112
Q

What is the structural difference between thymine and uracil

A

thymine has an extra methyl group.

113
Q

Chapt11- A drosophila genome is about…

A

165 Mb

114
Q

A human genome is about

A

3.4 Gbp

115
Q

Chapt11- The Marmur-Doty equation predicts the melting temperature of a DNA molecule in solution based on the concentration of salt and

A

%GC

116
Q

Chapt11- The human genome has a ________ Cot value than the Drosophila genome
Correct!

A

larger

117
Q

Chapt11- The DNA molecules inside a human cell total more than ____________ long

A

2 meters

118
Q

Chapt11- The first stage of DNA packaging is the formation of…

A

supercoils

119
Q

Chapt11- The structure composed of 146bp of DNA wrapped around 8 histone proteins is called a…

A

nucleosome

120
Q

Chapt11- The proteins that control the structure of DNA loops are called…

A

condensins

121
Q

Chapt11- The centromere attaches to the spindle microtubules through the…

A

kinetochore

122
Q

Chapt11- The telomere has two functions: to replicate the 3’ ends of the DNA helix, and _______________.

A

to protect the ends of the chromosomes from degradation

123
Q

Chapt12- What are the three models of DNA replication considered in the Meselson and Stahl experiment?

A

conservative, semiconservative and dispersive

124
Q

What salt is used to establish a gradient in the analytical ultracentrifuge?

A

cesnium chloride

125
Q

DNA is synthesized

A

5’ –> 3’

126
Q

DNA synthesis on the lagging strand is

A

discontinuous

127
Q

Which enzyme removes the RNA primer?

A

DNA pol I

128
Q

Which enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments?

A

DNA ligase

129
Q

What stabilizes the two strands of the DNA helix when they are separated for replication?

A

single stranded binding proteins

130
Q

What is the complex molecular machine at the replication fork called?

A

replisome

131
Q

What Greek letter does the E. coli genome look like halfway through replication?

A

theta

132
Q

How fast does DNA polymerase add nucleotides during replication of the E. coli genome?

A

2,000 bp/sec

133
Q

How big is the average replicon in a mouse?

A

150,000 bp

134
Q

What is the error rate of DNA replication in E. coli before proofreading?

A

1/1,000,000

135
Q

In the Holliday junction model, branch migration produces a stretch of ___________

A

heteroduplex DNA

136
Q

What consensus sequences are typically found in E. coli promoters?

A

-10 and -35 boxes

137
Q

When a sigma factor is added to the subunits of the core RNA polymerase, the complex is called the…

A

RNA polymerase holoenzyme

138
Q

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is the site at which the mRNA binds to the…

A

ribosome

139
Q

The two most common modifications of eukaryotic ribosomal RNAs are…

A

2’-O-ribose methylation and pseudouridylation

140
Q

Which RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing most eucaryotic mRNAs?

A

pol II

141
Q

What modifications are made to the 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNAs?

A

5’ cap

142
Q

What modifications are made to the 3’ end of eukaryotic mRNAs?

A

poly-A tail

143
Q

What technique was used to discover introns?

A

DNA - RNA hybrids

144
Q

What is ‘intron’ short for?

A

intervening sequences

145
Q

What is the ribonucleoprotein complex that performs splicing called?

A

spliceosome

146
Q

Which enzyme processes miRNAs and siRNAs?

A

dicer

147
Q

What class of proteins is guided to their targets by miRNAs?

A

argonaute

148
Q

How was the meaning of most of the codons determined?

A

triplet binding assay

149
Q

The structure of the genetic code makes is somewhat resistant to

A

mutation

150
Q

Codons for structurally similar amino acids are located ___________ in the codon table.

A

adjacent

151
Q

Highly expressed genes tend to have ___________ usage of synonymous codons.

A

a more uneven

152
Q

Transcription and translation of a messenger RNA are simultaneous in

A

procaryotes

153
Q

Repressor proteins normally bind to the ____________.

A

operator

154
Q

If the regulatory control of an operon is described as ‘negative, repressible’, it means transcription is ___________ unless there is a high level of product from the pathway.

A

on

155
Q

The two regulatory mechanisms at work on the trp operon are negative repression and ________________.

A

attenuation

156
Q

Transcription of the trp operon is regulated by the rate of _______________ of the trp leader.

A

translation

157
Q

In the footprinting assay, DNA is protected from degradation by ________________

A

bound protein

158
Q

The lac operon encodes _________ proteins thought to be important in lactose metabolism.

A

3

159
Q

The lacI gene is NOT part of the lac operon, and encodes_______________.
Correct!

A

a repressor protein

160
Q

Regulation of the lac operon can be characterized as

A

negative inducible

161
Q

Binding of CAP induces ____________ upstream of the lac promoter.

A

DNA bending

162
Q

What are the tradeoffs implicit in regulation of gene activity at different points in gene expression?

A

regulatory speed vs. energetic cost

163
Q

Open versus closed chromatin refers to how tightly the DNA is bound _____________.

A

in nucleosomes

164
Q

Methylation of histones can either increase or decrease transcription depending on ____________________.

A

the site of methylation

165
Q

Acetylation of histones __________ their affinity for DNA.

A

reduces

166
Q

Methylation of DNA generally _____________ transcription.

A

decreases

167
Q

The pre-initiation complex brings together RNA polymerase and other proteins of the __________________.

A

basal transcription complex

168
Q

Transcription typically requires additional __________________ bound at some distance from the promoter.

A

transcriptional activator proteins

169
Q

The interaction of enhancers with promoters is limited to particular topologically associated domains by ___________________.

A

insulators

170
Q

Gene expression can be regulated after transcription by ______________________ of the mRNA.

A

processing and degradation

171
Q

Sex determination in Drosophila is mediated by a chain of __________________.

A

alternative splicing

172
Q

siRNA can degrade mRNA via ____________________.

A

an RNA-induced silencing complex

173
Q

Translation can be regulated by the availability of __________________.

A

initiation factors

174
Q

Translation can be inhibited by binding of an RISC directed to its target by _________________.

A

a miRNA

175
Q

(T/F) Phosphorylation allows rapid regulation of protein activity.

A

True

176
Q

An allele is expected to behave in a neutral manner when the absolute value of its selection coefficient (s) is less than or equal to _________.

A

1/N

177
Q

The molecular clock ticks fastest in ____________ .

A

synonymous sites

178
Q

UPGMA clustering is a method for _____________.

A

constructing phylogenetic trees

179
Q

The mtDNAs of all modern humans had a common ancestor about __________ years ago.

A

150,000

180
Q

If p = q = 0.5, the frequency of AA homozygotes is ________.

A

0.25

181
Q

(T/F) Inbreeding is one of the four evolutionary forces that can change allele frequency in a population.

A

False

182
Q

Self-fertilization (selfing) can lead to essentially complete inbreeding in as few as _______ generations.

A

6

183
Q

The change in allele frequency in a population due to migration is proportional to ___________________.

A

the migration rate and the difference in allele frequency between populations

184
Q

Selection models are built by first defining the___________ genotypes.

A

relative fitness among

185
Q

Genetic variance can be partitioned into ___________________ components.

A

additive and dominance

186
Q

Narrow sense heritability is the ratio of _______________.

A

additive to phenotypic variance

187
Q

Offspring on parent regressions can be used to estimate _____________.

A

heritability

188
Q

The expected response to selection can be estimated by multiplying ________________.

A

the heritability by the selective differential applied

189
Q

QTL mapping measures the association between _______________.

A

phenotypes and the segregation of genetic markers

BSCI222- FInal Exam (1 decks)

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