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Med Term > Chapter 8: Cardiovascular System > Flashcards

Chapter 8: Cardiovascular System Flashcards

1
Q

What are leaflets in the context of the heart?

A

Flat, leaf-shaped structures that comprise the valves of the heart and prevent the backflow of blood

Leaflets are crucial for ensuring unidirectional blood flow through the heart.

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2
Q

Define lumen.

A

Tubular space or channel within an organ or structure of the body; space within an artery, vein, intestine, or tube

The lumen is essential for the passage of blood or other substances.

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3
Q

What is regurgitation?

A

Backflow or ejecting of contents through an opening

Regurgitation can occur in various physiological processes, including heart valve dysfunction.

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4
Q

What are sphincters?

A

Circular muscles found in a tubular structure or hollow organ that constrict or dilate to regulate passage of substances through its opening

Sphincters play a vital role in controlling the flow of materials in the digestive system and other bodily functions.

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5
Q

What is vasoconstriction?

A

Narrowing of the lumen of a blood vessel that limits blood flow, usually as a result of diseases, medications, or physiological processes

Vasoconstriction is a response that can help regulate blood pressure.

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6
Q

What is vasodilation?

A

Widening of the lumen of a blood vessel caused by the relaxing of the muscles of the vascular walls

Vasodilation increases blood flow to tissues and can be triggered by various factors, including heat.

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7
Q

Define viscosity.

A

Thickness or a measure of how resistant a liquid is to flowing

A solution that has a high viscosity is relatively thick and flows slowly.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ is the process of narrowing the lumen of a blood vessel.

A

vasoconstriction

This process can affect blood pressure and flow.

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ is the term for the flat, leaf-shaped structures that prevent backflow of blood in the heart.

A

leaflets

Understanding leaflets is crucial for studying heart function.

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10
Q

What does the combining form ‘aneurysm/o’ refer to?

A

widened blood vessel

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11
Q

What is the meaning of ‘aneurysm/o/rrhaphy’?

A

suture of an aneurysm

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12
Q

What does the combining form ‘angi/o’ mean?

A

vessel (usually blood or lymph)

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13
Q

What does ‘vascul/o’ refer to?

A

vessel

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14
Q

What is the meaning of ‘aort/o’?

A

aorta

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15
Q

What does the combining form ‘arterio’ signify?

A

artery

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16
Q

What does ‘arteriol/o’ refer to?

A

arteriole

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17
Q

What does ‘atri/o’ mean?

A

atrium

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18
Q

What does the combining form ‘ather/o’ signify?

A

fatty plaque

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19
Q

What does ‘cardi/o’ refer to?

A

heart

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20
Q

What does ‘coron/o’ mean?

A

coronary

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21
Q

What does ‘electr/o’ refer to?

A

electricity

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22
Q

What is the meaning of ‘angi/o/plasty’?

A

surgical repair of a vessel

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23
Q

True or False: Angioplasty is a procedure that narrows blood vessels.

A

False

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24
Q

What does ‘vascul/itis’ mean?

A

inflammation of a vessel

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25
Q

What is the meaning of ‘aort/o/stenosis’?

A

narrowing of the aorta

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26
Q

What does ‘arteri/o/rrhexis’ refer to?

A

rupture of an artery

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27
Q

What does ‘arteriol/itis’ mean?

A

inflammation of an arteriole

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28
Q

What is the meaning of ‘atri/o/megaly’?

A

enlargement of the atrium

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29
Q

What does ‘ather/oma’ refer to?

A

tumor of fatty plaque

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30
Q

What does ‘cardi/o/megaly’ mean?

A

enlargement of the heart

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31
Q

What does ‘coron/ary’ signify?

A

pertaining to the coronary arteries

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32
Q

What is the meaning of ‘electr/o/cardi/o/gram’?

A

record of the heart’s electrical activity

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33
Q

True or False: An electrocardiogram helps detect heart problems.

A

True

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34
Q

What does the prefix ‘embol/o’ refer to?

A

embolus (plug)

Used in terms like ‘embolectomy’, which involves the removal of an embolus.

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35
Q

Define ‘hemangi/o’.

A

blood vessel

Related to conditions such as hemangiomas.

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36
Q

What does the suffix ‘-ectomy’ mean?

A

excision, removal

Commonly used in surgical terminology.

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37
Q

What is ‘hemangioma’?

A

Benign tumors of cells that line blood vessels

Also called strawberry marks and usually found in neonates.

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38
Q

What does ‘my/o’ represent?

A

muscle

Used in terms like ‘myocardial’.

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39
Q

What does ‘phleb/o’ refer to?

A

vein

Used in terms like ‘phlebectomy’.

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40
Q

What does the suffix ‘-osis’ indicate?

A

abnormal condition; increase

Often used in medical terminology to describe conditions.

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41
Q

What is ‘venostasis’?

A

Abnormally slow blood flow in the veins

A major risk factor for clot formation.

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42
Q

Define ‘arteri/o/scler/osis’.

A

Abnormal condition of hardening of arteries

Commonly associated with atheromas and risk factors like smoking and diabetes.

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43
Q

What does ‘sept/o’ mean?

A

septum

Used in terms related to heart anatomy.

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44
Q

What is ‘septostomy’?

A

Temporary procedure to increase systemic oxygenation in infants with congenital heart defects

Performed until corrective surgery can be done.

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45
Q

What does ‘sphygm/o’ refer to?

A

pulse

Used in terms related to measuring blood pressure.

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46
Q

What is ‘thromb/o’?

A

blood clot

Related to conditions such as thrombosis.

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47
Q

What is ‘thrombolysis’?

A

Separation; destruction; loosening of blood clots

Involves infusing enzymes into occluded vessels.

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48
Q

Define ‘valv/o’.

A

valve

Used in terms like ‘valvotomy’.

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49
Q

What does ‘-plasty’ mean?

A

surgical repair

Commonly used in various surgical procedures.

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50
Q

What does ‘ventricul/o’ refer to?

A

ventricle (of the heart or brain)

Used in terms like ‘ventricular’.

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51
Q

What does the suffix ‘-cardia’ indicate?

A

heart condition

Used in terms such as tachycardia.

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52
Q

What does ‘tachy-‘ mean?

A

rapid

Used in terms like ‘tachycardia’.

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53
Q

What does ‘brady-‘ mean?

A

slow

Used in terms like ‘bradycardia’.

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54
Q

What does ‘endo-‘ mean?

A

in, within

Used in terms like ‘endovascular’.

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55
Q

What does ‘extra-‘ mean?

A

outside

Used in terms like ‘extravasculature’.

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56
Q

What does ‘peri-‘ refer to?

A

around

Used in terms like ‘pericardial’.

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57
Q

What does ‘trans-‘ mean?

A

across

Used in terms like ‘transseptal’.

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58
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

Localized abnormal dilation of a vessel, usually an artery.

Types of aneurysm include fusiform, saccular, and dissecting.

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59
Q

What does the term ‘angina’ refer to?

A

Chest pain caused by obstructions or spasms of the coronary arteries that decrease blood flow to the myocardium.

Also called angina pectoris.

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60
Q

Define arrhythmia.

A

Irregularity in the rate or rhythm of the heart; also called dysthythmia.

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61
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

Abnormally slow heart rate, usually fewer than 60 beats per minute in a resting adult.

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62
Q

What is fibrillation?

A

Abnormally rapid, uncoordinated quivering of the myocardium that can affect the atria or the ventricles.

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63
Q

What is heart block?

A

Interference with the normal transmission of electrical impulses from the SA node to the Purkinje fibers.

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64
Q

Define tachycardia.

A

Abnormally fast but regular rhythm, with the heart possibly beating up to 200 beats/minute.

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65
Q

What is a bruit?

A

Soft, blowing sound heard on auscultation associated with valvular action or blood movement past an obstruction.

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66
Q

What is cardiomyopathy?

A

Disease or weakening of heart muscle that diminishes cardiac function.

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67
Q

What is coarctation?

A

Narrowing of a vessel, especially the aorta.

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68
Q

Define embolism.

A

Intravascular mass that dislodges from one part of the body and causes a blockage in another area.

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69
Q

What is heart failure (HF)?

A

Disorder that occurs when the heart is unable to effectively pump the quantity of blood required by the body.

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70
Q

What is hyperlipidemia?

A

Excessive amounts of lipids (cholesterol, phospholipids, and triglycerides) in the blood.

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71
Q

Fill in the blank: Anginal pain typically radiates down the _______.

A

left arm or into the shoulder, neck, jaw, or back.

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72
Q

True or False: The deadliest form of embolism is a pulmonary embolism.

A

True.

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73
Q

What are common causes of heart failure?

A
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes
  • Obesity
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74
Q

Fill in the blank: Hyperlipidemia is associated with an increased risk of _______.

A

atherosclerosis.

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75
Q

What is hypertension (HTN)?

A

Elevated blood pressure persistently higher than 140/90 mm Hg

Hypertension can lead to serious health issues, including heart disease and stroke.

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76
Q

What does the prefix ‘hyper-‘ in hypertension signify?

A

Excessive, above normal

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77
Q

What is hypotension?

A

Low blood pressure persistently lower than 90/60 mm Hg

Hypotension can cause dizziness and fainting.

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78
Q

Define mitral valve prolapse (MVP).

A

Structural defect in which the mitral valve leaflets prolapse into the left atrium during ventricular contraction, resulting in incomplete closure and backflow of blood

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79
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of mitral valve prolapse (MVP)?

A

Characteristic murmur heard on auscultation and palpitations of the heart

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80
Q

What is a palpitation?

A

Sensation of an irregular heartbeat, commonly described as pounding, racing, skipping a beat, or flutter

81
Q

What characterizes peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A

Reduced flow of blood to the extremities, especially the legs, resulting in muscle cramping and pain

82
Q

What commonly causes peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A

Atherosclerosis

83
Q

What is phlebitis?

A

Inflammation of a deep or superficial vein of the arms or legs

84
Q

What is thrombophlebitis?

A

Vein inflammation caused by the development of thrombi within the veins

85
Q

What is rheumatic heart disease (RHD)?

A

Serious pathological condition resulting from rheumatic fever, commonly causing permanent scarring of the heart valves

86
Q

What is syncope?

A

Partial or complete loss of consciousness usually caused by a decreased supply of blood to the brain; also called fainting

87
Q

Define thrombosis.

A

Abnormal condition in which a blood clot develops in a vessel and obstructs it at the site of its formation

88
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Abnormal condition in which a blood clot develops in a vessel, especially in the deep veins of the legs or thighs

89
Q

What can happen to blood clots formed in DVT?

A

They may break away from the vein wall and travel in the body, especially to the lungs

90
Q

Fill in the blank: A blood pressure of _______ mm Hg or higher is considered hypertension in persons with diabetes and chronic kidney disease.

A

130/80

91
Q

What blood pressure level is classified as ‘Stage I HTN’?

A

140-159 mm Hg

92
Q

What is the diastolic blood pressure reading for ‘Prehypertension (HTN)’?

A

80-89 mm Hg

93
Q

True or False: Chronic rheumatic heart disease is a leading cause of mitral valve stenosis and valve replacement in adults.

A

True

94
Q

What does ECG stand for?

A

Electrocardiography

ECG is also abbreviated as EKG.

95
Q

What is the purpose of the Holter monitor test?

A

Graphically records the spread of electrical excitation in the heart

Uses small metal electrodes applied to the chest, arms, and legs.

96
Q

What is a stress test?

A

ECG taken under controlled exercise stress conditions

May show abnormal ECG tracings not visible during resting ECG.

97
Q

What are cardiac biomarkers?

A

Substances released by the heart when damaged or under stress

Also referred to as cardiac enzyme test.

98
Q

What does a lipid panel assess?

A

Risk factors of ischemic heart disease

Includes total cholesterol, HDL, LDL, and triglycerides.

99
Q

Define angiography.

A

Procedure that records a radiographic image of a blood vessel

Involves injection of a contrast medium.

100
Q

What is the difference between arteriography and venography?

A

Arteriography is for arteries, venography is for veins

Both are types of angiography.

101
Q

What does aortography diagnose?

A

Aortic insufficiency

Involves angiography of the aorta and its branches.

102
Q

What is carotid artery ultrasonography used for?

A

Assess direction and speed of blood flow in blood vessels

Also called ultrasonography using sound pitch.

103
Q

True or False: Holter monitoring is useful for diagnosing cardiac arrhythmias.

A

True

Particularly effective for conditions that may be missed in short ECGs.

104
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of recording the heart’s electrical activity over 24-48 hours is called _______.

A

Holter monitoring

105
Q

What type of imaging is used in Doppler ultrasonography?

A

Ultrasonography reflecting sound waves off red blood cells

Helps diagnose blood clots and valvular disorders.

106
Q

What is echocardiography (ECHO)?

A

Ultrasound test that produces moving images of blood passing through the heart, valves, and chambers, and assesses cardiac output

ECHO involves placement of a transducer on the chest to direct ultrahigh-frequency sound waves toward cardiac structures. Reflected echoes are displayed on a monitor.

107
Q

What does myocardial perfusion imaging (MPI) assess?

A

How well blood flows through (perfuses) the heart muscle at rest and during exercise

MPI uses a radioactive tracer in conjunction with a stress test and is also called a nuclear stress test.

108
Q

What is the purpose of single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)?

A

Shows how well blood is flowing to the heart and how efficiently the heart is pumping

SPECT is a myocardial perfusion test that creates individual images as ‘slices’ of the heart.

109
Q

What does cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) evaluate?

A

The effects of coronary heart disease, treatment strategies, and monitors the progression of disorders over time

Cardiac MRI provides images of the heart chambers, valves, major vessels, and pericardium.

110
Q

What is magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)?

A

Type of MRI that provides highly detailed images of blood vessels

MRA detects blood flow, the condition of blood vessel walls, and blockage without using a contrast medium.

111
Q

What does a multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA) scan measure?

A

How effectively the heart walls move as they contract and calculates the ejection fraction rate

The ejection fraction rate is the most accurate predictor of overall heart function.

112
Q

What is cardiac catheterization (CC)?

A

Passage of a catheter into the heart through a vein or artery to evaluate the heart

CC gathers information about blood supply through the coronary arteries and enables blood sample collection and x-rays.

113
Q

What is the purpose of an electrophysiology study (EPS)?

A

Study and map the conduction system of the heart and reproduce abnormal heart rhythms

EPS helps determine the best medication, treatment, or device to control or correct the abnormal rhythm.

114
Q

Fill in the blank: ECHO involves placement of a transducer on the chest to direct _______ toward cardiac structures.

A

[ultrahigh-frequency sound waves]

115
Q

True or False: MRA uses a contrast medium to detect blood flow and blockages.

A

False

116
Q

List two types of imaging tests used to assess cardiac function.

A
  • Echocardiography (ECHO)
  • Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
117
Q

What is surgical angioplasty?

A

Endovascular procedure that reopens narrowed blood vessels to restore forward blood flow

Surgical angioplasty is most commonly performed on coronary, carotid, renal, or peripheral arteries occluded by atherosclerosis.

118
Q

What does PTCA stand for?

A

Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

119
Q

What is the primary purpose of PTCA?

A

To enlarge the lumen of the artery and restore blood flow

120
Q

What is commonly performed in conjunction with angioplasty?

A

Stent placement

121
Q

How is the balloon catheter inserted during PTCA?

A

Through the right femoral artery

122
Q

What is cardiac ablation?

A

Procedure in which a catheter is inserted through a vein in the groin and threaded to the heart to correct structural problems causing arrhythmia

123
Q

What techniques are employed in cardiac ablation?

A

Radiofrequency (heat), laser, or cryoablation (very cold)

124
Q

What is the purpose of cardiac ablation?

A

To cause scarring of abnormal areas, thus correcting arrhythmias of the heart

125
Q

What does CABG stand for?

A

Coronary artery bypass graft

126
Q

What is the main goal of CABG?

A

To bypass the blocked area of a coronary artery and restore blood supply to the heart muscle

127
Q

What are the two most common vessels used for coronary grafts?

A
  • Internal mammary arteries
  • Saphenous veins of the leg
128
Q

True or False: Angioplasty can only be performed on coronary arteries.

A

False

129
Q

Fill in the blank: The balloon catheter is inflated at the site of _______ during PTCA.

A

stenosis

130
Q

What is an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)?

A

A small, battery-powered device inserted within the chest of a patient at high risk for arrhythmias, delivering electrical shocks to restore normal heart rhythm

Also called automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD)

131
Q

What does an ICD monitor?

A

It monitors the heart and restores a normal rhythm by delivering electrical shocks

Specifically for conditions like ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, or cardiac arrest

132
Q

What is open heart surgery?

A

A surgical procedure where the sternum is cut in half vertically to expose the heart, its valves, or arteries

Types include CABG, valve replacement, and heart transplant

133
Q

What role does a heart-lung machine play during open heart surgery?

A

It takes over circulation and oxygen exchange to allow surgery on a resting (nonbeating) heart

134
Q

What is a pacemaker?

A

A battery-powered device implanted inside the chest to control heart rate and rhythm

Uses a wire positioned in the heart to coordinate the heartbeat with electrical pulses

135
Q

Define therapeutic defibrillation.

A

Lifesaving emergency treatment to restart the heart in cardiorespiratory arrest by delivering high-voltage electrical current through the heart

136
Q

What is an automated external defibrillator (AED)?

A

A device that analyzes heart rhythm and delivers an electrical shock to stimulate a heart in cardiac arrest

Designed for use by laypersons and located in public areas

137
Q

What is cardioversion?

A

A defibrillation technique using low-energy shocks to reset the heart’s rhythm back to its normal pattern

138
Q

When is cardioversion typically performed?

A

As a scheduled outpatient procedure, not in an emergency situation

139
Q

What condition does cardioversion primarily treat?

A

Arrhythmias that antiarrhythmic drugs cannot treat

140
Q

What is the therapeutic action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

A

Lower blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

141
Q

ACE inhibitors are used to treat which conditions?

A

Hypertension and heart failure

142
Q

Fill in the blank: Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) lower blood pressure by blocking the angiotensin II enzyme from causing _______.

A

vasoconstriction

143
Q

What is the primary function of antiarrhythmics?

A

Prevent, alleviate, or correct cardiac arrhythmias

144
Q

True or False: Antiarrhythmics treat only ventricular arrhythmias.

A

False

145
Q

What do anticoagulants inhibit?

A

The body’s natural coagulation response

146
Q

What can clots formed in blood vessels lead to?

A

Heart attacks or strokes

147
Q

What effect do beta blockers have on adrenaline?

A

Block the effect of adrenaline

148
Q

Beta blockers are prescribed for which conditions?

A

Hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias

149
Q

What is the generic name for Lotensin?

A

Benazepril

150
Q

What is the trade name for lisinopril?

A

Prinivil, Zestril

151
Q

What is the generic name for Cozaar?

A

Losartan

152
Q

What is the trade name for valsartan?

A

Diovan

153
Q

What is the generic name for Cordarone?

A

Amiodarone

154
Q

What is the action of digoxin?

A

Used to treat heart conditions, specifically to strengthen heart contractions

155
Q

What is the trade name for warfarin?

A

Coumadin

156
Q

What is the generic name for Pradaxa?

A

Dabigatran

157
Q

What is the trade name for atenolol?

A

Tenormin

158
Q

What is the trade name for metoprolol?

A

Lopressor, Toprol-XL

159
Q

What is the therapeutic action of calcium channel blockers?

A

Block movement of calcium into myocardial cells and arterial walls, causing heart rate and blood pressure to decrease

Calcium channel blockers help treat angina pectoris, hypertension, arrhythmias, and heart failure.

160
Q

Name a generic and its trade name for a calcium channel blocker.

A

Amlodipine - Norvasc

Other examples include diltiazem (Cardizem CD) and nifedipine (Adalat CO, Procardia).

161
Q

What do diuretics do?

A

Act on kidneys to increase excretion of water and sodium

Diuretics reduce fluid buildup in the body, including fluid in the lungs, and help treat hypertension.

162
Q

Provide an example of a diuretic and its trade name.

A

Furosemide - Lasix

Hydrochlorothiazide is another example (Hydrodiuril).

163
Q

What is the primary action of nitrates?

A

Dilate blood vessels of the heart, increasing oxygen delivery to the myocardium

Nitrates are also used to widen blood vessels of the body, allowing more blood flow to the heart.

164
Q

What is a common form of nitroglycerin administration?

A

Sublingual as a spray or tablet

Other forms include oral tablets, transdermal patches, topical ointments, and intravenous in emergencies.

165
Q

What do statins do?

A

Lower cholesterol in the blood and reduce its production in the liver by blocking the enzyme that produces it

A combination of statins with a cholesterol absorption inhibitor can further lower cholesterol levels.

166
Q

Name a statin and its trade name.

A

Atorvastatin - Lipitor

Another example is simvastatin (Zocor), and simvastatin combined with ezetimibe is sold as Vytorin.

167
Q

Fill in the blank: Calcium channel blockers help treat _______.

A

angina pectoris, hypertension, arrhythmias, and heart failure

168
Q

True or False: Diuretics can help treat fluid buildup in the lungs.

A

True

169
Q

Fill in the blank: The trade name for furosemide is _______.

A

Lasix

170
Q

What is a key benefit of combining statins with cholesterol absorption inhibitors?

A

Decreases absorption of dietary cholesterol from the intestine

This combination not only lowers cholesterol in the blood but also reduces its production in the liver.

171
Q

What does the abbreviation AAA stand for?

A

abdominal aortic aneurysm

172
Q

What is the meaning of ACE in cardiovascular terms?

A

angiotensin-converting enzyme (inhibitor)

173
Q

What does AED stand for?

A

automated external defibrillator

174
Q

What is the full form of AICD?

A

automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

175
Q

What does ARB represent?

A

angiotensin receptor blocker

176
Q

What does AV mean?

A

atrioventricular; arteriovenous

177
Q

What does BP, B/P stand for?

A

blood pressure

178
Q

What does CABG mean?

A

coronary artery bypass graft

179
Q

What is the meaning of CAD?

A

coronary artery disease

180
Q

What does CC stand for?

A

cardiac catheterization

181
Q

What does CO, CV refer to?

A

cardiovascular

182
Q

What does DVT stand for?

A

deep vein thrombosis

183
Q

What is the abbreviation for electrocardiogram?

A

ECG, EKG

184
Q

What does ECHO mean in cardiovascular studies?

A

echocardiogram, echocardiography

185
Q

What does HF stand for?

A

heart failure

186
Q

What is the meaning of Hg in medical terms?

A

mercury

187
Q

Fill in the blank: The abbreviation for myocardial infarction is _______.

A

MI

188
Q

What does MRA stand for?

A

magnetic resonance angiogram, magnetic resonance angiography

189
Q

What is the meaning of MRI?

A

magnetic resonance imaging

190
Q

What does MVP represent?

A

mitral valve prolapse

191
Q

What does PAD stand for?

A

peripheral artery disease

192
Q

What does PTCA mean?

A

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

193
Q

What is the meaning of RA?

A

right atrium

194
Q

What does RHD stand for?

A

rheumatic heart disease

195
Q

What does RV refer to?

A

residual volume; right ventricle

196
Q

What does SA, S-A stand for?

A

sinoatrial

197
Q

What are electrophysiology studies abbreviated as?

A

EPS

198
Q

What does SPECT mean?

A

single photon emission computed tomography

199
Q

What is the abbreviation for ultrasound?

A

US

Med Term (9 decks)

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