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Med Term > Chapter 6: Digestive System > Flashcards

Chapter 6: Digestive System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the digestive system also called?

A

Gastrointestinal (GI) system

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2
Q

What does the GI tract consist of?

A

A digestive tube extending from the mouth to the anus

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3
Q

What is the primary function of the digestive system?

A

To break down food, prepare it for absorption, and eliminate waste

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4
Q

What are the accessory organs of digestion?

A
  • Liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Pancreas
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5
Q

What happens to food as it passes through the GI tract?

A

It is mixed with digestive enzymes and broken down into nutrient molecules

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6
Q

What is the outcome of undigested waste materials in the digestive process?

A

They are eliminated from the body through defecation

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7
Q

Define bilirubin

A

Orange-yellow pigment formed during destruction of erythrocytes, taken up by liver cells and eventually excreted in the feces

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8
Q

What indicates liver damage or disease in relation to bilirubin?

A

Elevated bilirubin in the blood produces yellowing of the skin (jaundice)

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9
Q

What is a bolus?

A

Mass of masticated food ready for swallowing

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10
Q

Define exocrine

A

Type of gland that secretes its products through excretory ducts to the surface of an organ or tissue or into a vessel

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11
Q

What is a sphincter?

A

Circular band of muscle fibers that constricts a passage or closes a natural opening of the body

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12
Q

Give an example of a sphincter.

A

Lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter

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13
Q

Define triglycerides

A

Organic compound, a true fat, made of one glycerol and three fatty acids

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14
Q

What do triglycerides combine with in the blood?

A

Proteins to form lipoproteins

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15
Q

Where is the process of digestion initiated?

A

In the mouth

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16
Q

What is the oral cavity?

A

Receptacle for food formed by the cheeks, lips, teeth, tongue, and hard and soft palates

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17
Q

What do salivary glands secrete?

A

Saliva

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18
Q

What role does saliva play in digestion?

A

Contains important digestive enzymes that help begin the chemical breakdown of food

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19
Q

How is food broken down in the mouth?

A

Mechanically (by the teeth) and chemically (by saliva)

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20
Q

What is formed from food in the mouth before swallowing?

A

A bolus

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21
Q

What is the primary role of teeth in the digestive process?

A

Mechanically breaking down food (mastication) into smaller pieces

Teeth mix food with saliva during this process.

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22
Q

What are the three main structures of a tooth?

A
  • Enamel
  • Dentin
  • Pulp

Enamel is the hard outer layer, dentin is the main structure, and pulp contains nerves and blood vessels.

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23
Q

What is the function of the tongue in digestion?

A

Manipulates the bolus of food during chewing and moves it to the back of the mouth for swallowing

The tongue also aids in speech production and taste.

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24
Q

What are the four basic taste sensations registered by taste buds?

A
  • Sweet
  • Sour
  • Salty
  • Bitter

All other taste perceptions are combinations of these four basic flavors.

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25
Q

What structures form the roof of the oral cavity?

A
  • Hard palate (anterior portion)
  • Soft palate (posterior portion)

The soft palate forms a partition between the mouth and the nasopharynx.

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26
Q

What is the function of the pharynx?

A

Serves as a passageway to the respiratory and GI tracts and provides a resonating chamber for speech sounds

The pharynx guides the bolus from the mouth to the esophagus.

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27
Q

What is the role of the epiglottis during swallowing?

A

Covers the trachea to force food into the esophagus

It remains upright at other times to allow air to pass through the respiratory structures.

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28
Q

Where is the stomach located in the body?

A

In the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdominal cavity

The stomach serves as a food reservoir that continues mechanical and chemical digestion.

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29
Q

What is the function of the lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter?

A

Prevents the stomach contents from regurgitating back into the esophagus

It constricts once food has passed into the stomach.

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30
Q

What are the main storage areas of the stomach?

A
  • Body of the stomach
  • Fundus

Most digestion takes place in the funnel-shaped terminal portion called the pylorus.

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31
Q

What are rugae in the stomach?

A

Macroscopic longitudinal folds in the interior lining of the stomach

Rugae unfold as the stomach fills.

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32
Q

What is chyme?

A

The semiliquid form that food turns into after being mixed with digestive secretions in the stomach

Chyme slowly leaves the stomach through the pyloric sphincter into the duodenum.

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33
Q

What regulates the movement of chyme into the small intestine?

A

Pyloric sphincter

It also prohibits backflow into the stomach.

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34
Q

What is the length of the small intestine?

A

Approximately 20 feet long

It begins at the pyloric sphincter and ends at the large intestine.

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35
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine?

A
  • Duodenum (10 inches long)
  • Jejunum (8 feet long)
  • Ileum (12 feet long)

Digestion is completed in the small intestine with the help of enzymes from the pancreas and liver.

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36
Q

What structures assist in the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine?

A

Microscopic, finger-like projections called villi

Nutrients enter the bloodstream and lymphatic system through these projections.

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37
Q

What is the function of the ileocecal valve?

A

Allows undigested or unabsorbed material from the small intestine to pass into the large intestine

The ileocecal valve is a sphincter muscle located at the terminal end of the small intestine.

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38
Q

How long is the large intestine?

A

Approximately 5 feet long

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39
Q

What is secreted in the large intestine?

A

Mucus

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40
Q

What are the three main components of the large intestine?

A
  • Cecum
  • Colon
  • Rectum
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41
Q

What is the cecum?

A

A small pouch that hangs inferior to the ileocecal valve

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42
Q

What is the function of the appendix?

A

No apparent function, can become inflamed (appendicitis)

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43
Q

What are the main functions of the colon?

A
  • Absorb water
  • Absorb minerals
  • Eliminate undigested material
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44
Q

What is the ascending colon?

A

Extends from the cecum to the lower border of the liver

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45
Q

What forms the hepatic flexure?

A

The abrupt turn of the ascending colon

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46
Q

What is the transverse colon?

A

Curves across the abdomen beneath the lower end of the spleen

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47
Q

What does the descending colon become?

A

The sigmoid colon

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48
Q

What is the rectum?

A

The last part of the GI tract, terminating at the anus

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49
Q

What is the largest glandular organ in the body?

A

Liver

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50
Q

Where is the liver located?

A

Beneath the diaphragm in the right upper and left upper quadrants of the abdominal cavity

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51
Q

What is one of the vital functions of the liver?

A
  • Producing bile
  • Removing glucose from the blood to synthesize glycogen
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52
Q

What happens if the liver ceases to function?

A

Death occurs

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53
Q

What is the role of bile?

A

Aids in the digestion of fat

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54
Q

The gallbladder is associated with which organ?

A

Liver

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55
Q

What is the function of the pancreas in digestion?

A

Plays a vital role in the proper digestion and absorption of nutrients

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56
Q

Fill in the blank: The first part of the large intestine is called the _______.

A

Cecum

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57
Q

True or False: Digestion takes place in the large intestine.

A

False

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58
Q

What vitamins does the liver store?

A

B12, A, D, E, and K

The liver plays a crucial role in vitamin storage and metabolism.

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59
Q

What is one of the liver’s functions related to toxic products?

A

Destroying or transforming toxic products into less harmful compounds

This is essential for detoxification processes in the body.

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60
Q

How does the liver maintain normal glucose levels?

A

By regulating glucose metabolism

The liver helps to maintain blood glucose levels through glycogen storage and release.

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61
Q

What does the liver do with old erythrocytes?

A

Destroys old erythrocytes and releases bilirubin

Bilirubin is a byproduct of the breakdown of hemoglobin.

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62
Q

What proteins does the liver synthesize that circulate in the blood?

A

Albumin, prothrombin, and fibrinogen

These proteins are vital for fluid balance and blood coagulation.

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63
Q

Where is the pancreas located?

A

Posterior and slightly inferior to the stomach

The pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions.

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64
Q

What is the function of the pancreatic duct?

A

Transports digestive enzymes to the duodenum

The pancreatic duct is essential for delivering enzymes for digestion.

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65
Q

Name one enzyme produced by the pancreas and its function.

A

Trypsin - digests proteins

Other enzymes produced include amylase and lipase.

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66
Q

What does amylase digest?

A

Starch

Amylase is crucial for carbohydrate digestion.

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67
Q

What is the role of lipase?

A

Digests triglycerides

Lipase is important for fat digestion.

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68
Q

What does the gallbladder do?

A

Stores bile

Bile is necessary for fat digestion.

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69
Q

How does bile get released from the gallbladder?

A

Through the common bile duct into the duodenum

This process is stimulated by hormonal signals when food enters the intestine.

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70
Q

What ducts drain bile from the liver?

A

Right hepatic duct and left hepatic duct

These ducts merge to form the hepatic duct.

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71
Q

What duct merges with the hepatic duct?

A

Cystic duct

This forms the common bile duct leading to the duodenum.

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72
Q

True or False: Without bile, fat digestion is possible.

A

False

Bile is essential for the emulsification and digestion of fats.

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73
Q

What is the main function of the digestive system?

A

To provide vital nutrients for growth, maintenance, and repair of all organs and body cells.

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74
Q

How does the liver regulate blood glucose levels?

A

The liver regulates blood glucose levels through metabolic processes.

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75
Q

What role does the digestive tract play in protecting against pathogens?

A

The digestive tract secretes acids and enzymes to provide a hostile environment for pathogens.

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76
Q

What is the function of lymphoid nodules in the intestinal walls?

A

They help prevent the invasion of pathogens.

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77
Q

What vitamin does the digestive system absorb that is necessary for blood clotting?

A

Vitamin K

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78
Q

How does the digestive system support the cardiovascular system?

A

By absorbing nutrients needed by the heart.

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79
Q

What is the role of the liver in hormone regulation?

A

The liver eliminates hormones from the blood to end their activity.

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80
Q

Which organ contains hormone-producing cells?

A

The pancreas

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81
Q

How does the digestive system contribute to female reproductive health?

A

By providing adequate nutrition, including fats, for conception and normal fetal development.

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82
Q

What nutrients does the digestive system supply for the repair of the endometrium following menstruation?

A

Nutrients necessary for repair.

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83
Q

How does the digestive system aid male reproductive health?

A

By providing adequate nutrients in the development of viable sperm.

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84
Q

What role does the digestive system play in skin health?

A

It supplies fats for insulation and absorbs nutrients for maintenance, growth, and repair.

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85
Q

What nutrients does the digestive system provide for energy fuel?

A

Nutrients needed for energy fuel.

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86
Q

What essential mineral does the digestive system absorb for muscle contraction?

A

Calcium

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87
Q

How does the liver assist in muscle activity?

A

By removing lactic acid from the blood.

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88
Q

What nutrients does the digestive system supply for normal neural functioning?

A

Nutrients necessary for normal neural functioning.

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89
Q

What does the digestive system provide for the synthesis of neurotransmitters?

A

Nutrients for the synthesis of neurotransmitters and electrolytes.

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90
Q

How does the liver maintain glucose levels for neural function?

A

By playing a role in maintaining the glucose levels needed.

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91
Q

What nutrients does the digestive system absorb for the respiratory system?

A

Nutrients needed by cells in the lungs and respiratory tract.

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92
Q

What two tubes does the pharynx divide into?

A

Trachea and esophagus

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93
Q

How does the liver metabolize substances for urinary excretion?

A

By metabolizing hormones, toxins, and drugs into forms that can be excreted in urine.

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94
Q

What is the combining form for ‘mouth’?

A

or/o

Other combining forms include stomat/o, gloss/o, lingu/o, bucc/o

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95
Q

What does the suffix ‘-itis’ indicate?

A

inflammation

Examples include stomatitis and appendicitis.

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96
Q

What is the meaning of ‘gingiv/o’?

A

gum(s)

Related term: gingivectomy.

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97
Q

What does ‘gloss/ectomy’ mean?

A

excision, removal of the tongue

Related term: glossitis.

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98
Q

What is the combining form for ‘stomach’?

A

gastr/o

Related term: gastralgia.

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99
Q

Define ‘bucc/al’.

A

pertaining to the cheek

Related term: buccal cavity.

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100
Q

What does ‘sial/o’ refer to?

A

saliva, salivary gland

Related term: sialolith.

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101
Q

What is the meaning of ‘dent/o’?

A

teeth

Related term: dentist.

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102
Q

What does the suffix ‘-ectomy’ signify?

A

excision, removal

Examples include appendectomy and gingivectomy.

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103
Q

What is ‘pylor/o’ related to?

A

pylorus

Related term: pylorospasm.

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104
Q

Fill in the blank: ‘jejun/o’ refers to the _______.

A

jejunum

It is the second part of the small intestine.

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105
Q

What does ‘ile/o’ refer to?

A

ileum

It is the third part of the small intestine.

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106
Q

What is the combining form for ‘appendix’?

A

append/o

Related term: appendectomy.

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107
Q

What does ‘enter/o’ signify?

A

intestine (usually small intestine)

Related term: enteropathy.

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108
Q

True or False: ‘salivary’ refers to the mouth.

A

False

‘Salivary’ pertains to saliva, not directly to the mouth.

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109
Q

What is the meaning of ‘orth/odont/ist’?

A

specialist in correcting and preventing irregularities of abnormally aligned teeth

‘Orth’ means straight.

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110
Q

What does ‘pylor/o/spasm’ mean?

A

involuntary contraction of the pyloric sphincter

Related to pylorospasm.

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111
Q

What does ‘pharyng/o’ refer to?

A

pharynx (throat)

Related term: pharyngitis.

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112
Q

What is the meaning of ‘appendic/o’?

A

appendix

Related term: appendicitis.

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113
Q

What is the combining form for ‘tongue’?

A

gloss/o

Related term: glossitis.

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114
Q

Fill in the blank: ‘sial/o/lith’ means _______.

A

salivary stone

It refers to a stone in the salivary glands.

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115
Q

What does the prefix ‘collo’ refer to in medical terminology?

A

Colon

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116
Q

What is the meaning of ‘sigmoid/o’?

A

Sigmoid colon

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117
Q

What does ‘rect/o’ denote?

A

Rectum

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118
Q

What is the meaning of ‘proct/o’?

A

Anus, rectum

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119
Q

What does ‘hepat/o’ refer to?

A

Liver

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120
Q

What does ‘pancreat/o’ mean?

A

Pancreas

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121
Q

What does ‘cholangi/o’ refer to?

A

Bile vessel

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122
Q

Define ‘colostomy’

A

A procedure creating an opening for fecal matter to exit the body other than through the anus

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123
Q

What is ‘colonoscopy’?

A

Visual examination of the colon using a colonoscope

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124
Q

What does ‘sigmoid/o/tomy’ mean?

A

Incision into the sigmoid colon

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125
Q

What is a ‘rectocele’?

A

A hernia or swelling of the rectum, also known as proctocele

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126
Q

Who is a ‘proctologist’?

A

A physician specializing in treating disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus

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127
Q

What does ‘hepat/o/megaly’ indicate?

A

Enlargement of the liver

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128
Q

What is ‘pancreat/o/lysis’?

A

Separation, destruction, or loosening of the pancreas

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129
Q

What does ‘chol/e’ refer to?

A

Bile, gall

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130
Q

What are ‘chol/e/lith’?

A

Gallstones, solid masses composed of bile and cholesterol

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131
Q

What is ‘cholecystectomy’?

A

Excision or removal of the gallbladder

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132
Q

What does ‘choledoch/o’ refer to?

A

Bile duct

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133
Q

What is ‘choledoch/o/plasty’?

A

Surgical repair of the bile duct

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134
Q

Fill in the blank: ‘Hyper/emesis’ refers to _______.

A

Excessive vomiting

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135
Q

What is ‘chol/e/lith/iasis’?

A

Condition of gallstones in the bile duct

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136
Q

What does ‘an/orexia’ mean?

A

Without appetite

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137
Q

What is ‘dys/pepsia’?

A

Bad, painful, or difficult digestion, also called indigestion

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138
Q

What does ‘aer/o/phagia’ refer to?

A

Swallowing of air

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139
Q

The term ‘post/prandial’ means _______.

A

After a meal

140
Q

Define ‘steat/o/rrhea’.

A

Discharge or flow of fat

141
Q

What does the prefix ‘dia-‘ mean?

A

through, across

142
Q

What does the prefix ‘peri-‘ mean?

A

around

143
Q

What is the meaning of ‘diarrhea’?

A

Discharge or flow of fluid fecal matter through the bowel

144
Q

What does ‘peri/odont/itis’ refer to?

A

Inflammation around the tooth

145
Q

What does the prefix ‘sub-‘ signify?

A

under, below

146
Q

What does ‘sub/lingu/al’ mean?

A

Pertaining to under the tongue

147
Q

What symptoms may indicate a digestive disorder?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Bleeding
  • Pain
  • Weight loss
148
Q

What clinical signs may indicate a hepatic disorder?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Edema
149
Q

What can cause behavioral abnormalities in relation to digestive disorders?

A
  • Severe infection
  • Drug toxicity
  • Changes in fluid and electrolyte balance
150
Q

Which branch of medicine focuses on digestive diseases?

A

Gastroenterology

151
Q

What is the role of a gastroenterologist?

A

Diagnosis and treatment of digestive disorders

152
Q

Do gastroenterologists perform surgeries?

A

No, but they perform procedures like liver biopsy and endoscopic examinations

153
Q

What is Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

A

An ulcer in the digestive system, primarily in the stomach and duodenum

154
Q

What is a common cause of PUD?

A

Erosion of the protective mucous membrane caused by Helicobacter pylori infection

155
Q

What are risk factors for developing Peptic Ulcer Disease?

A
  • Smoking
  • Chewing tobacco
  • Stress
  • Caffeine use
  • Medications (steroids, aspirin, NSAIDs)
156
Q

What is a common treatment for PUD?

A
  • Antibiotics to destroy H. pylori
  • Antacids to reduce stomach acids
157
Q

What can happen if Peptic Ulcer Disease is left untreated?

A

Mucosal destruction can lead to perforation and bleeding

158
Q

What is a hernia?

A

Protrusion of any organ, tissue, or structure through the wall of its cavity

159
Q

What is an inguinal hernia?

A

A hernia that develops in the groin

160
Q

What is a strangulated hernia?

A

A hernia where the blood supply is cut off due to pressure

161
Q

What is an umbilical hernia?

A

A protrusion of part of the intestine at the navel

162
Q

What is the treatment for a hernia?

A

Surgical repair of the hernia (hernioplasty) and suture of the abdominal wall (herniorrhaphy)

163
Q

What is a hiatal hernia?

A

A condition in which the lower part of the esophagus and the top of the stomach slide through an opening in the diaphragm into the thorax

May cause heartburn, chest pain, and swallowing difficulty.

164
Q

What are the symptoms of a hiatal hernia?

A

Heartburn, chest pain, swallowing difficulty

Can lead to gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) if prolonged.

165
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

An inflammatory condition of the liver

Causes include toxic substances, obstructions, metabolic diseases, autoimmune diseases, and infections.

166
Q

What are the most common forms of hepatitis?

A
  • Hepatitis A (infectious hepatitis)
  • Hepatitis B (serum hepatitis)
  • Hepatitis C

Transmission routes vary for each type.

167
Q

How is hepatitis A primarily transmitted?

A

Ingestion of contaminated food, water, or milk.

168
Q

How are hepatitis B and C usually transmitted?

A

By parenteral routes such as blood transfusions and sexual contact.

169
Q

Is there a vaccine available for hepatitis B?

A

Yes, a vaccine that provides immunity is available.

170
Q

Is there a vaccine available for hepatitis C?

A

No, there is no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

171
Q

What is jaundice?

A

A yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclerae of the eyes

Occurs when the liver cannot remove bilirubin.

172
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

A condition in which small, blisterlike pockets (diverticula) develop in the inner lining of the large intestine.

173
Q

What are symptoms of diverticulitis?

A
  • Pain in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen
  • Extreme constipation or diarrhea
  • Fever
  • Abdominal swelling
  • Occasional blood in bowel movements.
174
Q

What is the treatment for mild diverticulitis?

A
  • Rest
  • Antibiotics
  • Changes in diet.
175
Q

What is the most common type of stomach cancer?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

Develops from the epithelial or mucosal lining of the stomach.

176
Q

What is a significant warning sign of stomach cancer?

A

Persistent indigestion.

177
Q

What is colorectal cancer?

A

One of the most common types of intestinal cancer in the United States, originating in the epithelial lining of the colon or rectum.

178
Q

What are common symptoms of colorectal cancer?

A
  • Changes in bowel habits
  • Passage of blood and mucus in stools
  • Rectal or abdominal pain
  • Anemia
  • Weight loss
  • Obstruction
  • Perforation.
179
Q

True or False: Stomach cancer is common in the United States.

A

False.

180
Q

Where do diverticula most commonly occur?

A

In the sigmoid colon.

181
Q

What may severe cases of diverticulitis require?

A

Surgical intervention, such as excision of the affected segment of intestine.

182
Q

What is a strangulated hernia?

A

A hernia that becomes trapped and its blood supply is cut off.

183
Q

What is an inguinal hernia?

A

A hernia that occurs in the groin area.

184
Q

What is a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

A congenital disorder where contents of the abdomen move into the thorax.

185
Q

What is the definition of anorexia?

A

Lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat

Anorexia should not be confused with anorexia nervosa, which is a complex psychogenic eating disorder characterized by an all-consuming desire to remain thin.

186
Q

What causes appendicitis?

A

Usually caused by obstruction or infection

Treatment for appendicitis is open or laparoscopic appendectomy due to the risk of the appendix rupturing.

187
Q

What are common symptoms of colon cancer?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Anorexia
  • Anemia
  • Palpable mass
  • Change in bowel habits
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Intestinal obstruction
  • Spasms of rectum or bladder with pain and a desire to empty the bowel or bladder.
188
Q

Where does cancer of the sigmoid colon and rectum typically cause symptoms?

A

Partial obstruction with constipation alternating with diarrhea, lower abdominal cramping pain, and distention.

189
Q

What is the medical term for inflammation of the appendix?

A

Appendicitis

The term is derived from ‘appendic’ (appendix) and ‘-itis’ (inflammation).

190
Q

What are the stages of colon cancer?

A

Stage I, Stage II, Stage III, Stage IV

Cancer can spread to other organs, particularly in later stages.

191
Q

True or False: The pain from colon cancer usually radiates toward the umbilicus or perianal area.

A

True

192
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is between the cecum and the sigmoid colon.

A

Ascending Colon

193
Q

What are the symptoms of appendicitis?

A

Inflammation of the appendix, usually leading to severe abdominal pain

Symptoms often require immediate surgical intervention.

194
Q

What is a food bolus?

A

A mass of food that is swallowed

It travels through the esophagus to the stomach.

195
Q

What is the main risk associated with appendicitis?

A

The likelihood of the appendix rupturing and causing a severe, life-threatening infection.

196
Q

What is the definition of anorexia?

A

Lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat

Anorexia should not be confused with anorexia nervosa, which is a complex psychogenic eating disorder characterized by an all-consuming desire to remain thin.

197
Q

What causes appendicitis?

A

Usually caused by obstruction or infection

Treatment for appendicitis is open or laparoscopic appendectomy due to the risk of the appendix rupturing.

198
Q

What are common symptoms of colon cancer?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Anorexia
  • Anemia
  • Palpable mass
  • Change in bowel habits
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Intestinal obstruction
  • Spasms of rectum or bladder with pain and a desire to empty the bowel or bladder.
199
Q

Where does cancer of the sigmoid colon and rectum typically cause symptoms?

A

Partial obstruction with constipation alternating with diarrhea, lower abdominal cramping pain, and distention.

200
Q

What is the medical term for inflammation of the appendix?

A

Appendicitis

The term is derived from ‘appendic’ (appendix) and ‘-itis’ (inflammation).

201
Q

What are the stages of colon cancer?

A

Stage I, Stage II, Stage III, Stage IV

Cancer can spread to other organs, particularly in later stages.

202
Q

True or False: The pain from colon cancer usually radiates toward the umbilicus or perianal area.

A

True

203
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is between the cecum and the sigmoid colon.

A

Ascending Colon

204
Q

What are the symptoms of appendicitis?

A

Inflammation of the appendix, usually leading to severe abdominal pain

Symptoms often require immediate surgical intervention.

205
Q

What is a food bolus?

A

A mass of food that is swallowed

It travels through the esophagus to the stomach.

206
Q

What is the main risk associated with appendicitis?

A

The likelihood of the appendix rupturing and causing a severe, life-threatening infection.

207
Q

What is ascites?

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, usually due to chronic liver disease, a neoplasm, or an inflammatory disorder

Most commonly associated with cirrhosis of the liver, especially when caused by alcoholism. Treatment includes paracentesis to remove the fluid.

208
Q

Define borborygmus.

A

Rumbling or gurgling noises caused by the passage of gas through the liquid contents of the intestine.

209
Q

What is cachexia?

A

Physical wasting that includes loss of weight and muscle mass, commonly associated with AIDS and cancer; also called wasting syndrome.

210
Q

What condition is characterized by the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder?

A

Cholelithiasis.

211
Q

What is choledocholithiasis?

A

Condition when one or more gallstones are present in the common bile duct.

212
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

Scarring and dysfunction of the liver caused by chronic liver disease.

213
Q

What is Crohn disease?

A

Form of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) affecting any portion of the intestinal tract; also called regional enteritis.

214
Q

What is dysentery?

A

Inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon, often resulting in bloody diarrhea.

215
Q

Define flatus.

A

Gas in the GI tract; expelling of air from a body orifice, especially the anus.

216
Q

What does gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) entail?

A

Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to malfunction of the sphincter muscle.

217
Q

What is halitosis?

A

Foul-smelling breath.

218
Q

What is hematemesis?

A

Vomiting of blood from bleeding in the stomach or esophagus.

219
Q

What are hemorrhoids?

A

Swollen varicose veins in the anorectal region categorized as external or internal.

220
Q

What is intestinal obstruction?

A

Mechanical or functional blockage of the intestines preventing contents from moving forward.

221
Q

Fill in the blank: Ascites is most commonly associated with _______.

A

cirrhosis of the liver.

222
Q

True or False: Dysentery is common in developed countries.

A

False.

223
Q

What role does a high-fiber diet play in relation to hemorrhoids?

A

It helps in prevention of hemorrhoids.

224
Q

What is ascites?

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, usually due to chronic liver disease, a neoplasm, or an inflammatory disorder

Most commonly associated with cirrhosis of the liver, especially when caused by alcoholism. Treatment includes paracentesis to remove the fluid.

225
Q

Define borborygmus.

A

Rumbling or gurgling noises caused by the passage of gas through the liquid contents of the intestine.

226
Q

What is cachexia?

A

Physical wasting that includes loss of weight and muscle mass, commonly associated with AIDS and cancer; also called wasting syndrome.

227
Q

What condition is characterized by the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder?

A

Cholelithiasis.

228
Q

What is choledocholithiasis?

A

Condition when one or more gallstones are present in the common bile duct.

229
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

Scarring and dysfunction of the liver caused by chronic liver disease.

230
Q

What is Crohn disease?

A

Form of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) affecting any portion of the intestinal tract; also called regional enteritis.

231
Q

What is dysentery?

A

Inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon, often resulting in bloody diarrhea.

232
Q

Define flatus.

A

Gas in the GI tract; expelling of air from a body orifice, especially the anus.

233
Q

What does gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) entail?

A

Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to malfunction of the sphincter muscle.

234
Q

What is halitosis?

A

Foul-smelling breath.

235
Q

What is hematemesis?

A

Vomiting of blood from bleeding in the stomach or esophagus.

236
Q

What are hemorrhoids?

A

Swollen varicose veins in the anorectal region categorized as external or internal.

237
Q

What is intestinal obstruction?

A

Mechanical or functional blockage of the intestines preventing contents from moving forward.

238
Q

Fill in the blank: Ascites is most commonly associated with _______.

A

cirrhosis of the liver.

239
Q

True or False: Dysentery is common in developed countries.

A

False.

240
Q

What role does a high-fiber diet play in relation to hemorrhoids?

A

It helps in prevention of hemorrhoids.

241
Q

What is irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

A

Symptom complex marked by abdominal pain and altered bowel function (typically constipation, diarrhea, or alternating constipation and diarrhea) for which no organic cause can be determined; also called spastic colon.

Contributing or aggravating factors of IBS include anxiety and stress.

242
Q

Define malabsorption syndrome.

A

Symptom complex of the small intestine characterized by the impaired passage of nutrients, minerals, or fluids through intestinal villi into the blood or lymph.

May be associated with diseases affecting the intestinal mucosa, surgery, or antibiotic therapy.

243
Q

What is melena?

A

Dark, tarlike feces that contain digested blood from bleeding in the esophagus or stomach.

Treatment requires correcting the underlying cause of bleeding.

244
Q

Define obesity.

A

Excessive accumulation of fat that exceeds the body’s skeletal and physical standards, usually an increase of 20% or more above ideal body weight.

May be caused by excessive food intake (exogenous) or metabolic/endocrine abnormalities (endogenous).

245
Q

What is morbid obesity?

A

Obesity in which body mass index (BMI) is greater than 40, and generally 100 lb or more over ideal body weight.

Morbid obesity is a disease with serious psychological, social, and medical ramifications.

246
Q

What is obstipation?

A

Severe constipation, which may be caused by an intestinal obstruction.

247
Q

Define oral leukoplakia.

A

Formation of white spots or patches on the mucous membrane of the tongue, lips, or cheek caused primarily by irritation.

Oral leukoplakia is a precancerous condition, usually associated with pipe or cigarette smoking or ill-fitting dentures.

248
Q

What is pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas caused when digestive enzymes attack pancreatic tissue, leading to damage.

Common causes include alcoholism, gallstone obstruction, drug toxicity, or infection.

249
Q

Define pyloric stenosis.

A

Stricture or narrowing of the pyloric sphincter at the outlet of the stomach, causing an obstruction that blocks the flow of food into the small intestine.

250
Q

What does regurgitation mean in a medical context?

A

A backward flow, as in the return of solids or fluids to the mouth from the stomach.

251
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease of the colon, commonly beginning in the rectum or sigmoid colon and extending upward into the entire colon.

Characterized by profuse, watery diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus; may require surgical creation of a stoma.

252
Q

What is gastrointestinal endoscopy?

A

Visual examination of the gastrointestinal tract using a flexible fiberoptic instrument with a magnifying lens and a light source to identify abnormalities.

Includes esophagoscopy, gastroscopy, duodenoscopy, colonoscopy, and sigmoidoscopy.

253
Q

What is a hepatitis panel?

A

A panel of blood tests that identifies the specific virus causing hepatitis by testing serum using antibodies to each of these antigens: hepatitis A (HAV), hepatitis B (HBV), or hepatitis C (HCV)

Helps determine the type of hepatitis infection present.

254
Q

What do liver function tests (LFTs) evaluate?

A

Liver injury, liver function, and conditions commonly associated with the biliary tract

LFTs evaluate liver enzymes, bilirubin, and proteins produced by the liver.

255
Q

What does elevated serum bilirubin indicate?

A

Excessive destruction of erythrocytes, liver disease, or biliary tract obstruction

Bilirubin is a byproduct of the breakdown of red blood cells.

256
Q

What is the purpose of a stool culture?

A

To identify microorganisms or parasites present in feces that are causing a gastrointestinal infection

Feces are examined microscopically after being placed in a growth medium.

257
Q

What does a stool guaiac test detect?

A

The presence of occult (hidden) blood in the feces

Also called Hemoccult, this test helps detect colon cancer and bleeding associated with digestive disorders.

258
Q

What is computed tomography (CT)?

A

An imaging technique achieved by rotating an x-ray emitter around the area to be scanned and measuring the intensity of transmitted rays from different angles

A computer generates detailed cross-sectional images that aid in visualizing the digestive system.

259
Q

What is the purpose of a lower gastrointestinal series?

A

To produce radiographic images of the rectum and colon following administration of barium into the rectum

Helps diagnose obstructions, tumors, and other abnormalities of the colon.

260
Q

What does oral cholecystography (OCG) evaluate?

A

Gallbladder function and identifies the presence of disease or gallstones

Radiographic images are taken after administration of a contrast material containing iodine.

261
Q

What is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

A

A technique that uses radio waves and a strong magnetic field to produce highly detailed, multiplanar, cross-sectional views of soft tissues

MRI does not involve radiation exposure.

262
Q

What is magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)?

A

A special MRI technique that produces detailed images of the hepatobiliary and pancreatic systems

MRCP can help detect gallstones, tumors, inflammation, infection, or pancreatitis without the need for a contrast medium.

263
Q

What is a hepatitis panel?

A

A panel of blood tests that identifies the specific virus causing hepatitis by testing serum using antibodies to each of these antigens: hepatitis A (HAV), hepatitis B (HBV), or hepatitis C (HCV)

Helps determine the type of hepatitis infection present.

264
Q

What do liver function tests (LFTs) evaluate?

A

Liver injury, liver function, and conditions commonly associated with the biliary tract

LFTs evaluate liver enzymes, bilirubin, and proteins produced by the liver.

265
Q

What does elevated serum bilirubin indicate?

A

Excessive destruction of erythrocytes, liver disease, or biliary tract obstruction

Bilirubin is a byproduct of the breakdown of red blood cells.

266
Q

What is the purpose of a stool culture?

A

To identify microorganisms or parasites present in feces that are causing a gastrointestinal infection

Feces are examined microscopically after being placed in a growth medium.

267
Q

What does a stool guaiac test detect?

A

The presence of occult (hidden) blood in the feces

Also called Hemoccult, this test helps detect colon cancer and bleeding associated with digestive disorders.

268
Q

What is computed tomography (CT)?

A

An imaging technique achieved by rotating an x-ray emitter around the area to be scanned and measuring the intensity of transmitted rays from different angles

A computer generates detailed cross-sectional images that aid in visualizing the digestive system.

269
Q

What is the purpose of a lower gastrointestinal series?

A

To produce radiographic images of the rectum and colon following administration of barium into the rectum

Helps diagnose obstructions, tumors, and other abnormalities of the colon.

270
Q

What does oral cholecystography (OCG) evaluate?

A

Gallbladder function and identifies the presence of disease or gallstones

Radiographic images are taken after administration of a contrast material containing iodine.

271
Q

What is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

A

A technique that uses radio waves and a strong magnetic field to produce highly detailed, multiplanar, cross-sectional views of soft tissues

MRI does not involve radiation exposure.

272
Q

What is magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)?

A

A special MRI technique that produces detailed images of the hepatobiliary and pancreatic systems

MRCP can help detect gallstones, tumors, inflammation, infection, or pancreatitis without the need for a contrast medium.

273
Q

What is ultrasonography (US)?

A

A test in which high-frequency sound waves are directed at soft tissue and reflected as ‘echoes’ to produce an image on a monitor of an internal body structure

Also called ultrasound, sonography, and echo. It is a noninvasive procedure that helps detect diseases and abnormalities in digestive organs.

274
Q

What does ‘anastomosis’ refer to in surgical terms?

A

Surgical joining of two ducts, vessels, or bowel segments to allow flow from one to another

275
Q

What is an ‘ileorectal’ anastomosis?

A

Surgical connection of the ileum and rectum after total colectomy, as performed in the treatment of ulcerative colitis

276
Q

Define ‘appendectomy’.

A

Excision of a diseased appendix using an open or laparoscopic procedure

277
Q

What is the difference between open and laparoscopic appendectomy?

A

Open appendectomy involves a larger incision, while laparoscopic appendectomy uses three small incisions and is minimally invasive

278
Q

What is the purpose of an abdominal ultrasound?

A

Helps diagnose and locate cysts, tumors, and malformations; documents the progression of diseases; guides surgical procedures

279
Q

What is the role of endoscopic ultrasonography?

A

Combination of endoscopy and ultrasound to examine and obtain images of the digestive tract and surrounding tissues

280
Q

What does UGIS stand for?

A

Upper gastrointestinal series

281
Q

What is the procedure for UGIS?

A

Radiographic images of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine following oral administration of barium

282
Q

True or False: Laparoscopic appendectomy reduces recovery time but takes longer than open appendectomy.

A

True

283
Q

Fill in the blank: _____ is the surgical connection of two portions of the intestines.

A

[Anastomosis]

284
Q

What are the risks associated with laparoscopic surgery?

A

Additional risks associated with inflating the abdomen with gas (pneumoperitoneum)

285
Q

What can delay in appendectomy treatment lead to?

A

Rupture of the appendix, causing peritonitis as fecal matter enters the peritoneal cavity

286
Q

What is bariatric surgery?

A

Group of procedures that treat morbid obesity and resultant health problems

Morbid obesity is characterized by severe accumulation of excess weight as fatty tissue.

287
Q

What is vertical banded gastroplasty?

A

Bariatric surgery involving vertical stapling of the upper stomach and insertion of a band to restrict food consumption

This procedure causes a feeling of fullness and delays food passage from the pouch.

288
Q

What does Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RGB) involve?

A

Stapling the stomach to decrease its size and connecting the jejunum to the small stomach pouch

RGB reduces the pathway of food through the intestine, decreasing absorption of calories and fats.

289
Q

What is a colostomy?

A

Surgical procedure that creates an opening (stoma) in the abdominal wall for fecal diversion

A colostomy diverts fecal flow to a colostomy bag.

290
Q

What is lithotripsy?

A

Procedure for crushing stones and eliminating fragments surgically or with shock waves

Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy (ESWL) is a noninvasive method to break up stones.

291
Q

What is paracentesis?

A

Procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen using a long, thin needle

Fluid is sent for analysis to determine the cause of accumulation and may relieve pressure or pain.

292
Q

Fill in the blank: Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is currently the most commonly performed _______.

A

[weight-loss surgery]

293
Q

True or False: Colostomy is performed to create a new path for waste material to leave the body.

A

True

294
Q

What are the two methods of performing RGB?

A

Laparoscopically or as an open procedure (laparotomy)

The choice depends on the health of the patient.

295
Q

What is the purpose of using shock waves in lithotripsy?

A

To break up stones in the gallbladder or biliary ducts noninvasively

Ultrasound helps locate stones and monitor their destruction.

296
Q

What does the term ‘stoma’ refer to in the context of colostomy?

A

An opening formed by drawing the healthy end of the colon through an incision

The stoma is sutured in place to divert fecal flow.

297
Q

What is the definition of polypectomy?

A

Excision of a polyp for microscopic tissue examination to detect abnormal or cancerous cells

Polyps are small growths that can occur in the digestive tract. They are often removed during procedures like sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy.

298
Q

What does nasogastric intubation involve?

A

Insertion of a nasogastric tube through the nose into the stomach to relieve gastric distention or obtain a specimen

This procedure can also be used to instill medication, food, or fluids.

299
Q

What is the therapeutic action of antacids?

A

Counteract or neutralize acidity in the stomach

Antacids treat and prevent heartburn and acid reflux.

300
Q

What do antidiarrheals do?

A

Control loose stools and relieve diarrhea by absorbing excess water or slowing peristalsis

They are essential for preserving water and electrolytes in the body.

301
Q

What is the primary function of antiemetics?

A

Control nausea and vomiting by blocking nerve impulses to the vomiting center of the brain

Some antiemetics also hasten the movement of food through the digestive tract.

302
Q

What do antispasmodics treat?

A

Decrease gastrointestinal (GI) spasms and motility

They are used for conditions like irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and diverticulitis.

303
Q

What is the role of histamine-2 (H2) blockers?

A

Inhibit secretion of stomach acid by blocking the H2 receptor

H2 blockers are used to treat acid reflux and gastric or duodenal ulcers.

304
Q

Fill in the blank: Antacids are used to treat _______.

A

heartburn and acid reflux

305
Q

Name a common antacid and its trade name.

A

Calcium carbonate; Rolaids, Tums

306
Q

What is the therapeutic action of loperamide?

A

Control loose stools by slowing peristalsis in the intestinal tract

Loperamide is a common antidiarrheal medication.

307
Q

True or False: Antispasmodics increase gastrointestinal motility.

A

False

308
Q

What is the function of glycopyrrolate?

A

Antispasmodic that decreases GI spasms

It is used in various gastrointestinal conditions.

309
Q

What are the indications for using famotidine?

A

Treatment of acid reflux and gastric or duodenal ulcers

Famotidine is a histamine-2 (H2) blocker.

310
Q

What are laxatives used for?

A

Treat constipation by increasing peristaltic activity in the large intestine or increasing water and electrolyte secretion into the bowel to induce defecation.

311
Q

What is the therapeutic action of proton pump inhibitors?

A

Suppress basal and stimulated acid production by inhibiting the acid pump in the gastric cells.

312
Q

What conditions do proton pump inhibitors treat?

A

Gastric and duodenal ulcers and acid reflux.

313
Q

Which drugs are more potent acid inhibitors than H2 blockers?

A

Proton pump inhibitors.

314
Q

What is the generic name for Senokot?

A

Senna, sennosides.

315
Q

What is the trade name for psyllium?

A

Metamucil, Natural Fiber Supplement.

316
Q

What is the generic name for Prilosec?

A

Omeprazole.

317
Q

What is the trade name for esomeprazole?

A

Nexium.

318
Q

What does the abbreviation AIDS stand for?

A

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome.

319
Q

What does the abbreviation Ba refer to?

A

Barium.

320
Q

What does BM stand for in medical terminology?

A

Bowel movement.

321
Q

What is the meaning of BMI?

A

Body mass index.

322
Q

What does EGD stand for?

A

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy.

323
Q

What is the meaning of ESWL?

A

Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy.

324
Q

What does EUS signify?

A

Endoscopic ultrasonography.

325
Q

What does GBS stand for?

A

Gallbladder series.

326
Q

What does GER refer to?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux.

327
Q

What does GI stand for?

A

Gastrointestinal.

328
Q

What is the meaning of HAV?

A

Hepatitis A virus.

329
Q

What does HBV signify?

A

Hepatitis B virus.

330
Q

What does HCV stand for?

A

Hepatitis C virus.

331
Q

What does HDV refer to?

A

Hepatitis D virus.

332
Q

What does HEV stand for?

A

Hepatitis E virus.

333
Q

What does IBS signify?

A

Irritable bowel syndrome.

334
Q

What does LFT stand for?

A

Liver function test.

335
Q

What does LUQ refer to?

A

Left upper quadrant.

336
Q

What is the meaning of MRCP?

A

Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography.

337
Q

What does NG stand for?

A

Nasogastric.

338
Q

What does GERD signify?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease.

339
Q

What does NSAID stand for?

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

340
Q

What does OCG refer to?

A

Oral cholecystography.

341
Q

What does PE stand for in a medical context?

A

Physical examination; pulmonary embolism; pressure-equalizing (tube).

342
Q

What does PUD signify?

A

Peptic ulcer disease.

343
Q

What does R/O stand for?

A

Rule out.

344
Q

What does RGB refer to?

A

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.

345
Q

What does RUQ signify?

A

Right upper quadrant.

346
Q

What does UGIS stand for?

A

Upper gastrointestinal series.

347
Q

What does US refer to in medical imaging?

A

Ultrasound; ultrasonography.

Med Term (9 decks)

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