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Med Term > Chapter 5: Integumentary System > Flashcards

Chapter 5: Integumentary System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the largest organ in the body?

A

The skin

The skin is also referred to as the integument.

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2
Q

What are the accessory organs associated with the integumentary system?

A

Hair, nails, and glands

The integumentary system includes both the skin and its accessory organs.

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3
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

State of equilibrium of the internal environment of the body despite changes in the external environment

Homeostasis encompasses regulatory mechanisms controlling temperature, acidity, and concentrations of various substances.

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4
Q

What is the role of androgens?

A

Stimulate development of male characteristics and regulate sebum production

Examples of androgens include testosterone and androsterone.

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5
Q

What is the function of the skin?

A

Protects underlying structures, provides sensory information, regulates body temperature, prevents dehydration, and synthesizes vitamin D

The skin acts as a barrier against ultraviolet rays and is a reservoir for food and water.

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6
Q

What are the two distinct layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis

A subcutaneous layer of tissue binds the skin to underlying structures.

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7
Q

What is the stratum corneum?

A

The outer layer of the epidermis composed of dead, flat cells that lack a blood supply and sensory receptors

Its thickness is related to normal wear of the area it covers.

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8
Q

Where are new skin cells formed?

A

In the basal layer of the epidermis

The basal layer is the deepest layer of the epidermis and comprises living cells.

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9
Q

What is keratin?

A

A hard protein material that fills dead skin cells as they move toward the stratum corneum

Keratin provides waterproof characteristics to the skin.

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10
Q

What pigment do melanocytes produce?

A

Melanin

Melanin provides a protective barrier from ultraviolet radiation.

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11
Q

How does sun exposure affect melanin production?

A

Moderate sun exposure increases melanin production, resulting in a suntan

Overexposure can lead to sunburn due to insufficient melanin absorption of ultraviolet rays.

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12
Q

What factors contribute to differences in skin color?

A

The amount of melanin in each cell

Dark-skinned individuals produce larger amounts of melanin.

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13
Q

What is an albino?

A

An individual who cannot produce melanin

Albinos have marked deficiencies of pigment in the eyes, hair, and skin.

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14
Q

What is the dermis also known as?

A

Corium

The dermis lies directly beneath the epidermis.

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15
Q

What does the dermis contain?

A

Numerous capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and nerve fibers

The dermis is composed of living tissue.

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16
Q

Fill in the blank: The process by which a cell forms in the basal layer, rises to the surface, becomes keratinized, and sloughs off takes about _______.

A

1 month

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17
Q

What is the subcutaneous layer also called?

A

Hypodermis

The subcutaneous layer binds the dermis to underlying structures and is composed of loose connective tissue and adipose tissue.

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18
Q

What are the primary functions of the subcutaneous layer?

A

Stores fats, insulates and cushions the body, regulates temperature

The amount of fat varies with region of the body, sex, age, and nutritional state.

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19
Q

What are the accessory organs of the skin?

A

Integumentary glands, hair, nails

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20
Q

What are the two important glands located in the dermis?

A

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands, sebaceous (oil) glands

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21
Q

What do sudoriferous glands secrete?

A

Sweat

Sweat is secreted onto the surface of the skin through pores.

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22
Q

What is the main function of sudoriferous glands?

A

Cool the body by evaporation, excrete waste products, moisten surface cells

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23
Q

What is the secretion produced by sebaceous glands called?

A

Sebum

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24
Q

What is the role of sebum?

A

Destroys harmful organisms on the skin, prevents infection

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25
Q

What happens when ductules of sebaceous glands become blocked?

A

Acne may result

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26
Q

What regulates the production and secretion of sebum?

A

Sex hormones, particularly androgens

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27
Q

Where are sebaceous glands not present?

A

Soles of the feet, palms of the hands

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28
Q

What is the visible part of the hair called?

A

Hair shaft

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29
Q

What forms the hair follicle?

A

Hair root and its coverings

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30
Q

What is located at the bottom of the hair follicle?

A

Papilla

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31
Q

What is the role of melanocytes in hair color?

A

Produce melanin, which affects hair color

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32
Q

What is the function of nails?

A

Protect the tips of fingers and toes from bruises and injuries

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33
Q

Where is each nail formed?

A

Nail root

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34
Q

What is the tough covering of the nail made of?

A

Keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelial cells

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35
Q

What is the area called where new nail growth occurs?

A

Lunula

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36
Q

What gives the nail body its pink appearance?

A

Underlying vascular tissue

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37
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the half-moon-shaped area at the base of the nail.

A

Lunula

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38
Q

What is the main function of the skin?

A

To protect the entire body, including all of its organs, from the external environment

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39
Q

How does the skin relate to the blood, lymphatic, and immune systems?

A

Skin is the first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens into the body

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40
Q

What role do cutaneous blood vessels play in the cardiovascular system?

A

They dilate and constrict to help regulate body temperature

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41
Q

What vitamin does the skin absorb when exposed to sunlight?

A

Vitamin D

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42
Q

How is vitamin D important for the digestive system?

A

It is needed for intestinal absorption of calcium

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43
Q

Where are excess calories stored in the body?

A

As subcutaneous fat

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44
Q

What does the subcutaneous layer of the skin store in relation to the endocrine system?

A

Adipose tissue when insulin secretions cause excess carbohydrate intake to be stored as fat

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45
Q

What sensations do subcutaneous receptors provide in the female reproductive system?

A

Pleasurable sensations associated with sexual behavior

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46
Q

What happens to the skin during pregnancy?

A

It stretches to accommodate the growing fetus

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47
Q

What type of stimuli do receptors in the skin respond to in the nervous system?

A

Touch, pain, pressure, and temperature

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48
Q

How does skin temperature influence the respiratory system?

A

As temperature increases, respiratory rate may also increase

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49
Q

What is the function of nasal cavity hairs in the respiratory system?

A

To filter particles from inspired air before it reaches the lower respiratory tract

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50
Q

How does the skin function in the urinary system?

A

It provides an alternative route for excreting salts and nitrogenous wastes in the form of perspiration

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51
Q

Fill in the blank: Skin synthesizes the vitamin D needed for absorption of calcium, which is essential for _______.

A

muscle contraction

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52
Q

Fill in the blank: Skin synthesizes the vitamin D needed for growth, repair, and maintenance of _______.

A

bones

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53
Q

What does the combining form ‘adip/o’ mean?

A

fat

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54
Q

What does the combining form ‘lip/o’ refer to?

A

fat

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55
Q

What does ‘steat/o’ mean?

A

fat

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56
Q

What does the combining form ‘cutane/o’ signify?

A

skin

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57
Q

What is the meaning of ‘dermat/o’?

A

skin

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58
Q

What does ‘hidr/o’ refer to?

A

sweat

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59
Q

What does ‘sudor/o’ mean?

A

sweat

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60
Q

What does ‘ichthy/o’ signify?

A

dry, scaly

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61
Q

Define ‘adip/osis’.

A

abnormal condition of fat

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62
Q

What does ‘-osis’ denote?

A

abnormal condition; increase (used primarily with blood cells)

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63
Q

What is ‘lip/oma’?

A

tumor of fat

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64
Q

What does ‘steat/itis’ refer to?

A

inflammation of fat

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65
Q

What does ‘sub/cutane/ous’ mean?

A

pertaining to under the skin

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66
Q

What is the meaning of ‘dermat/o/plasty’?

A

surgical repair of the skin

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67
Q

What does ‘hypo/derm/ic’ refer to?

A

pertaining to under the skin

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68
Q

True or False: Hypodermic needles are used for intramuscular injections.

A

False

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69
Q

Define ‘hidr/aden/itis’.

A

inflammation of sweat glands

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70
Q

What does ‘sudor/esis’ refer to?

A

condition of sweating

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71
Q

What is ‘ichthy/osis’?

A

abnormal condition of dry, scaly skin

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72
Q

What does ‘kerat/o’ mean?

A

horny tissue; hard; cornea

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73
Q

Define ‘kerat/osis’.

A

abnormal condition of thickened skin

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74
Q

What does ‘melan/o’ refer to?

A

black

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75
Q

What is ‘melan/oma’?

A

malignant tumor of melanocytes

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76
Q

What does ‘myc/o’ signify?

A

fungus (plural, fungi)

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77
Q

Define ‘dermat/o/myc/osis’.

A

abnormal condition of skin fungus

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78
Q

What does ‘onych/o’ refer to?

A

nail

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79
Q

What is ‘onych/o/malacia’?

A

softening of the nail

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80
Q

What does ‘ungu/o’ mean?

A

nail

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81
Q

What does ‘pil/o’ refer to?

A

hair

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82
Q

What is ‘pil/o/nid/al’?

A

pertaining to a nest of hair

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83
Q

Define ‘trich/o/pathy’.

A

disease of hair

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84
Q

What does ‘scler/o’ signify?

A

hardening; sclera (white of eye)

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85
Q

What is ‘scler/o/derma’?

A

hardening of the skin

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86
Q

Define ‘seb/o/rrhea’.

A

discharge of sebum

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87
Q

What does ‘squam/o’ mean?

A

scale

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88
Q

What does ‘xen/o’ refer to?

A

foreign, strange

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89
Q

Define ‘xen/o/graft’.

A

transplantation from a foreign donor

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90
Q

What does ‘xer/o’ signify?

A

dry

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91
Q

What is ‘xer/o/derma’?

A

dry skin condition

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92
Q

What does the suffix ‘-cyte’ mean?

A

cell

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93
Q

What does the suffix ‘-derma’ refer to?

A

skin

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94
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix ‘-logist’?

A

specialist in the study of

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95
Q

What does the suffix ‘-logy’ refer to?

A

study of

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96
Q

What does the suffix ‘-therapy’ mean?

A

treatment

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97
Q

What does the prefix ‘an-‘ signify?

A

without, not

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98
Q

What does the prefix ‘epi-‘ mean?

A

above, upon

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99
Q

What does the prefix ‘homo-‘ indicate?

A

same

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100
Q

What does ‘lip/o/cyte’ mean?

A

fat cell

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101
Q

Define ‘py/o/derma’.

A

pus skin

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102
Q

What is pyoderma?

A

an acute, inflammatory, purulent bacterial dermatitis

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103
Q

What type of specialist is a ‘dermat/o/logist’?

A

specialist in skin

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104
Q

What does ‘dermat/o/logy’ refer to?

A

study of skin

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105
Q

What is ‘cry/o/therapy’ used for?

A

destroy tissue by freezing

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106
Q

What is the outermost layer of the skin called?

A

epidermis

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107
Q

What does ‘homo/graft’ refer to?

A

transplantation of same tissue

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108
Q

True or False: The general appearance of the skin is clinically important.

A

True

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109
Q

What can pale skin indicate?

A

shock

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110
Q

What may red, flushed, very warm skin indicate?

A

fever and infection

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111
Q

What may a rash indicate?

A

allergies or local infections

112
Q

What is a dermatologist?

A

physician specializing in skin diseases

113
Q

What are lesions?

A

areas of tissue altered by injury, wound, or infection

114
Q

What are primary skin lesions?

A

initial reaction to pathologically altered tissue

115
Q

What are secondary skin lesions?

A

changes that occur in primary lesions due to various factors

116
Q

How are lesions described?

A

by appearance, color, location, and size

117
Q

Fill in the blank: The evaluation of skin lesions helps establish the _______ of skin disorders.

A

diagnosis

118
Q

What are primary lesions?

A

Flat, discolored, circumscribed lesions of any size

Includes macules, papules, nodules, vesicles, pustules, tumors, bullae, and wheals.

119
Q

Define a macule.

A

Flat, pigmented, circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter

Examples include freckles, flat moles, or rashes that occur in rubella.

120
Q

What is a papule?

A

Solid, elevated lesion less than 1 cm in diameter

Examples include nevus, pimple, ringworm, psoriasis, and eczema.

121
Q

Define a nodule.

A

Palpable, circumscribed lesion larger than 1 cm in diameter

Nodule examples were not provided in the text.

122
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

Elevated, circumscribed, fluid-filled lesion less than 0.5 cm in diameter

Examples include poison ivy, shingles, and chickenpox.

123
Q

What is a pustule?

A

Small, raised, circumscribed lesion that contains pus, usually less than 1 cm in diameter

Examples include acne, furuncle, and pustular psoriasis.

124
Q

Define a tumor.

A

Solid, elevated lesion larger than 2 cm in diameter

Examples include lipoma and steatoma.

125
Q

What is a bulla?

A

A vesicle or blister larger than 1 cm in diameter

Examples include second-degree burns and severe poison oak or poison ivy.

126
Q

Define a wheal.

A

Elevated, firm, rounded lesion with localized skin edema that varies in size, shape, and color

Examples include hives and insect bites.

127
Q

What are secondary lesions?

A

Depressed lesions caused by loss of skin surface

Includes excoriations and ulcers.

128
Q

What are excoriations?

A

Linear scratch marks or traumatized abrasions of the epidermis

Examples include scratches, abrasions, and chemical or thermal burns.

129
Q

Define an ulcer.

A

An open sore or lesion that extends to the dermis and usually heals with scarring

Examples include pressure sores and basal cell carcinoma.

130
Q

What are burns?

A

Tissue injuries caused by contact with thermal, chemical, electrical, or radioactive agents

Can affect skin and respiratory/digestive tract linings.

131
Q

What are the classifications of burns?

A

First-degree, second-degree, and third-degree burns

Classification is based on the extent of injury and severity.

132
Q

What characterizes first-degree burns?

A

Injure only the top layers of the skin (epidermis)

Symptoms include skin redness and acute sensitivity; generally heal without scarring.

133
Q

What characterizes second-degree burns?

A

Damage the epidermis and part of the dermis

Symptoms include fluid-filled blisters; may heal with little or no scarring.

134
Q

What characterizes third-degree burns?

A

Destroy the epidermis and dermis, damaging underlying connective tissue

Skin appears waxy and charred; may require skin grafting.

135
Q

What is the Rule of Nines?

A

A formula for estimating the percentage of adult body surface area affected by burns

Assigns specific values of surface area to body regions.

136
Q

Fill in the blank: First-degree burns are the least serious type of burn because they injure only the _______.

A

epidermis

137
Q

What are neoplasms?

A

Abnormal growths of new tissue classified as benign or malignant

138
Q

What characterizes benign neoplasms?

A

Noncancerous growths composed of the same type of cells as the tissue in which they grow

139
Q

What happens when a benign neoplasm enlarges?

A

It may require excision if it causes pain or interferes with other organs

140
Q

What defines malignant neoplasms?

A

Composed of cells that tend to become invasive and spread to remote regions (metastasis)

141
Q

What is the prognosis if cancer is left untreated?

A

It tends to be progressive and generally fatal

142
Q

What are the main treatment options for cancer?

A

Surgery, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, and radiation therapy

143
Q

What is immunotherapy?

A

A newer treatment that stimulates the body’s immune defenses to fight tumor cells

144
Q

What is combined-modality treatment?

A

Using a combination of different treatments for cancer

145
Q

What is the purpose of grading and staging cancer?

A

To help in diagnosis and treatment planning, provide prognosis, and compare treatment results

146
Q

What does tumor grading evaluate?

A

How closely the biopsied tissue resembles normal tissue

147
Q

What does a Grade I tumor indicate?

A

Cells closely resemble the tissue of origin; good prognosis for recovery

148
Q

What characterizes a Grade IV tumor?

A

Cells are very poorly differentiated and grow rapidly; poorest prognosis

149
Q

What does the TNM staging system classify?

A

Solid tumors by size and degree of spread based on T, N, M criteria

150
Q

What does ‘T’ represent in the TNM system?

A

Size and invasiveness of the primary tumor

151
Q

What does ‘N’ represent in the TNM system?

A

Area lymph nodes involved

152
Q

What does ‘M’ represent in the TNM system?

A

Invasiveness (metastasis) of the primary tumor

153
Q

What is basal cell carcinoma?

A

The most common type of skin cancer, a malignancy of the basal layer of the epidermis

154
Q

What is the main cause of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Overexposure to sunlight

155
Q

Do basal cell carcinomas typically metastasize?

A

Rarely metastasize; they are locally invasive

156
Q

Fill in the blank: A Grade III tumor shows _______.

A

Increased abnormality in appearance with only remote resemblance to the tissue of origin

157
Q

What does the TNM system of staging stand for?

A

Tumor, Node, Metastasis

158
Q

What does the designation ‘TX’ indicate in the TNM system?

A

Primary tumor that cannot be evaluated

159
Q

What does ‘Tis’ represent in the TNM system?

A

Carcinoma in situ, indicating no invasion into surrounding tissues

160
Q

What are the stages of the tumor in the TNM system?

A
  • Stage I: TI, T2, T3, T4
  • Stage II: T4
161
Q

What does ‘NX’ indicate in the node category of the TNM system?

A

Regional lymph nodes that cannot be evaluated

162
Q

What does ‘N0’ signify in the node category?

A

Regional lymph nodes that show no abnormalities

163
Q

What are the classifications for node involvement in the TNM system?

A
  • NI: Less involvement with minimal spreading
  • N4: More involvement with extensive spreading
164
Q

What does ‘MX’ indicate in the metastasis category of the TNM system?

A

Distant metastasis that cannot be evaluated

165
Q

What does ‘MO’ signify in the metastasis category?

A

No evidence of metastasis

166
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor affecting white people?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

167
Q

What are common characteristics of basal cell carcinoma?

A
  • Pearly, flesh-colored papule
  • Depressed center
  • Rolled edge
168
Q

What are possible treatments for basal cell carcinoma?

A
  • Curettage and electrodesiccation
  • Chemotherapy
  • Surgical excision
  • Irradiation
  • Chemosurgery
169
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma?

A

An invasive tumor arising from keratinizing epidermal cells

170
Q

What are common risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • Fair skin
  • Age over 60
  • Repeated overexposure to UV rays
  • Radiation therapy
  • Chronic skin irritation and inflammation
171
Q

What are the two types of squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • In situ
  • Invasive
172
Q

What are some treatment options for squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • Surgical excision
  • Cryotherapy
  • Radiotherapy
  • Electrodesiccation and curettage
173
Q

What is malignant melanoma?

A

A malignant growth of melanocytes that is highly metastatic

174
Q

What factors increase the risk of developing melanoma?

A
  • Fair complexions
  • Blue eyes
  • Red or blond hair
  • Freckles
  • Excessive sunlight exposure
175
Q

What is the primary method of diagnosing melanoma?

A

Biopsy and histological examination

176
Q

What is the main treatment for malignant melanoma?

A

Surgery to remove the primary cancer

177
Q

Fill in the blank: The tumor with the highest mortality rate among skin cancers is _______.

A

[malignant melanoma]

178
Q

What is an abscess?

A

Localized collection of pus at the site of an infection, typically a staphylococcal infection

A furuncle is an abscess originating in a hair follicle, while a carbuncle is a cluster of furuncles in the subcutaneous tissue.

179
Q

What is acne?

A

Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles, characterized by blackheads, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts

Also called acne vulgaris; common sites include the face, neck, and shoulders.

180
Q

Define alopecia.

A

Partial or complete loss of hair, commonly called baldness

Can result from aging, endocrine disorders, drug reactions, anticancer medication, or skin disease.

181
Q

What is Bowen disease?

A

Very early form of skin cancer characterized by a red, scaly patch on the skin

Also called squamous cell carcinoma in situ; treatment includes curettage and electrodesiccation.

182
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

Diffuse, acute infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

Characterized by light, glossy appearance of the skin, localized heat, redness, pain, and swelling.

183
Q

What does chloasma refer to?

A

Pigmentary skin discoloration usually occurring in yellowish-brown patches or spots

Commonly associated with hormonal changes.

184
Q

Define comedo.

A

Typical small skin lesion of acne vulgaris caused by accumulation of keratin, bacteria, and dried sebum

The closed form is called a whitehead, which consists of a papule from which the contents are not easily expressed.

185
Q

What is a decubitus ulcer?

A

Inflammation, sore, or skin deterioration caused by prolonged pressure from lying in one position that prevents blood flow to the tissues

Also known as pressure ulcer, commonly found in bedridden elderly persons

186
Q

Where are pressure ulcers most commonly found?

A

Skin overlying a bony projection, such as the hip, ankle, heel, shoulder, and elbow

These areas are more susceptible due to the lack of blood flow

187
Q

How are pressure ulcers categorized?

A

From stage 1 to stage 4

Each stage reflects the severity and depth of the ulcer

188
Q

Define ecchymosis

A

Skin discoloration consisting of a large, irregularly formed hemorrhagic area with colors changing from bluish black to greenish brown or yellow

Commonly called a bruise

189
Q

What is eczema?

A

Chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by erythema, papules, vesicles, pustules, scales, crusts, and intense itching (pruritus)

Also called atopic dermatitis

190
Q

What is erythema?

A

Redness of the skin caused by swelling of the capillaries

An example is a mild sunburn or nervous blushing

191
Q

What is eschar?

A

Dead matter that is sloughed off from the surface of the skin, especially after a burn

Eschar material is commonly crusty or scabbed

192
Q

Define impetigo

A

Bacterial skin infection characterized by isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture

193
Q

What is keratosis?

A

Thickened area of the epidermis or any horny growth on the skin, such as a callus or wart

194
Q

What is lentigo?

A

Small brown macules, especially on the face and arms, brought on by sun exposure

Usually occurs in middle-aged or older persons and are benign pigmented lesions

195
Q

What does pallor refer to?

A

Unnatural paleness or absence of color in the skin

196
Q

Define pediculosis

A

Infestation with lice, transmitted by personal contact or common use of brushes, combs, or headgear

197
Q

What is a petechia?

A

A minute, pinpoint hemorrhage under the skin.

A petechia is a smaller version of an ecchymosis.

198
Q

What is pruritus?

A

Intense itching.

Pruritus is often associated with various skin conditions.

199
Q

Define psoriasis.

A

A chronic skin disease characterized by itchy red patches covered by thick, dry, silvery scales caused by excessive development of the basal layer of the epidermis.

New psoriasis lesions tend to appear at sites of trauma.

200
Q

Common locations for psoriasis lesions include:

A
  • Scalp
  • Knees
  • Elbows
  • Umbilicus
  • Genitalia
201
Q

What treatments are available for psoriasis?

A
  • Topical application of various medications
  • Keratolytics
  • Phototherapy
  • Ultraviolet light therapy
202
Q

What is purpura?

A

Any of several bleeding disorders characterized by hemorrhage into the tissues, particularly beneath the skin or mucous membranes, producing ecchymoses or petechiae.

203
Q

How does hemorrhage into the skin from purpura appear?

A

Shows red darkening into purple and then brownish yellow and finally disappearing in 2 to 3 weeks.

204
Q

True or False: Areas of discoloration from purpura disappear under pressure.

A

False.

205
Q

What is scabies?

A

A contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite, commonly through sexual contact.

206
Q

What are common symptoms of scabies?

A
  • Papules
  • Vesicles
  • Pustules
  • Burrows
  • Intense itching
207
Q

What is tinea?

A

A fungal skin infection whose name commonly indicates the body part affected; also called ringworm.

208
Q

List examples of tinea.

A
  • Tinea barbae (beard)
  • Tinea corporis (body)
  • Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)
  • Tinea versicolor (skin)
  • Tinea cruris (jock itch)
209
Q

What is urticaria?

A

An allergic reaction of the skin characterized by the eruption of pale red, elevated patches called wheals or hives.

210
Q

What causes verrucae?

A

Epidermal growth caused by a virus; also known as warts.

211
Q

How can verrucae be removed?

A
  • Cryosurgery
  • Electrocautery
  • Acids
212
Q

What types of warts are included under verrucae?

A
  • Plantar warts
  • Juvenile warts
  • Venereal warts
213
Q

What is vitiligo?

A

Localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches

Vitiligo is a skin condition that results in the loss of pigment in certain areas of the skin, leading to contrasting patches.

214
Q

What is an allergy skin test?

A

Any test in which a suspected allergen or sensitizer is applied to or injected into the skin to determine the patient’s sensitivity to it

Common types include intradermal, patch, and scratch tests.

215
Q

Describe the intradermal skin test.

A

Skin test that identifies suspected allergens by subcutaneously injecting small amounts of extracts of the suspected allergens

It is used to observe the skin for a subsequent reaction.

216
Q

What does a positive reaction in an allergy skin test indicate?

A

It indicates that the person is allergic to the suspected allergen

This is determined by observing skin reactions such as redness or swelling.

217
Q

What is the purpose of the patch test?

A

To identify allergic contact dermatitis by applying a suspected allergen to a patch taped on the skin

Observations are made 24 hours later for allergic responses.

218
Q

What indicates a negative result in a patch test?

A

A lack of noticeable reaction after patch removal

Conversely, skin reddening or swelling indicates a positive result.

219
Q

What is the scratch test also known as?

A

Puncture test or prick test

It identifies suspected allergens by placing a small quantity of the allergen on a scratched area of the skin.

220
Q

What does redness or swelling at the scratch sites within 10 minutes indicate?

A

An allergy to the substance or a positive test result

If no reaction occurs, the test result is negative.

221
Q

What is the purpose of culture & sensitivity (C&S) testing?

A

To determine the presence of pathogens in suspected wound infections and identify appropriate drug therapy

This testing helps understand which drugs are effective against the identified organisms.

222
Q

What is a surgical biopsy (Bx)?

A

Representative tissue sample removed from a body site for microscopic examination

223
Q

What is a frozen section (FS) in medical procedures?

A

Ultrathin slice of tissue from a frozen specimen for immediate pathological examination

224
Q

What is the purpose of skin biopsies?

A

Help establish or confirm a diagnosis, estimate prognosis, or follow the course of a disease

225
Q

What is a needle biopsy?

A

Removal of a small tissue sample for examination using a hollow needle, usually attached to a syringe

226
Q

What is a punch biopsy?

A

Removal of a small core of tissue using a hollow punch

227
Q

What is a shave biopsy?

A

Removal of elevated lesions using a surgical blade

228
Q

What is Mohs surgery?

A

Procedure involving progressive removal and examination of layers of cancer-containing skin until only cancer-free tissue remains

229
Q

What is a skin graft?

A

Transplantation of healthy tissue to an injured site

230
Q

What is an allograft?

A

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to another person; also called homograft

231
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one site to another site in the same individual

232
Q

What is synthetic skin?

A

Transplantation of artificial skin produced from collagen fibers arranged in a lattice pattern

233
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

Transplantation (dermis only) from a foreign donor (usually a pig) and transferred to a human; also called heterograft

234
Q

What is a chemical peel?

A

Chemical removal of the outer layers of skin to treat acne scarring and general keratoses; also called chemabrasion

235
Q

What is cryosurgery?

A

Use of subfreezing temperature (commonly liquid nitrogen) to destroy or eliminate abnormal tissue

236
Q

What is débridement?

A

Removal of necrotized tissue from a wound by surgical excision, enzymes, or chemical agents

237
Q

What is dermabrasion?

A

Rubbing (abrasion) using wire brushes or sandpaper to mechanically scrape away the epidermis

238
Q

What is fulguration?

A

Tissue destruction by means of high-frequency electric current; also called electrodesiccation

239
Q

What is photodynamic therapy (PDT)?

A

Procedure in which cells treated with a photosensitizer are exposed to light to produce a reaction that destroys the cells

240
Q

True or False: Topical drug therapy is often effective for mild skin disorders.

A

True

241
Q

Fill in the blank: Widespread or particularly severe dermatological disorders may require ______ treatment.

A

systemic

242
Q

What types of medications might be prescribed for severe poison ivy reactions?

A

Oral steroid or antihistamine to relieve inflammation and severe itching

243
Q

What is the therapeutic action of antiacne agents?

A

Reduce acne through multiple mechanisms

Some antiacne medications decrease bacteria in the follicles of the skin; others disrupt the stickiness of the follicular skin cells.

244
Q

Name a generic and trade name for benzoyl peroxide.

A

Benzoyl peroxide
* PanOxyl

245
Q

What do antifungals do?

A

Alter the cell wall of fungi or disrupt enzyme activity, resulting in cell death.

246
Q

List three conditions treated by antifungals.

A
  • Ringworm (tinea corporis)
  • Athlete’s foot (tinea pedis)
  • Fungal infection of the nail (onychomycosis)
247
Q

What is a common trade name for itraconazole?

A

Sporanox (oral form only)

248
Q

What is the action of antihistamines?

A

Inhibit allergic reactions of inflammation, redness, and itching caused by the release of histamine.

249
Q

True or False: Antihistamines can be given orally for severe itching.

A

True

250
Q

What are antiparasitics used to treat?

A

Kill insect parasites, such as mites and lice.

251
Q

What is the therapeutic action of antiseptics?

A

Inhibit growth of bacteria, preventing infections in cuts, scratches, and surgical incisions.

252
Q

Name a generic and trade name for permethrin.

A

Permethrin
* Nix

253
Q

What is the primary action of corticosteroids?

A

Decrease inflammation and itching by suppressing the immune system’s inflammatory response.

254
Q

List two conditions treated with topical corticosteroids.

A
  • Contact dermatitis
  • Psoriasis
255
Q

What do keratolytics do?

A

Destroy and soften the outer layer of skin so that it is sloughed off or shed.

256
Q

Name a generic and trade name for hydrocortisone.

A

Hydrocortisone
* Cetacort, Cortaid

257
Q

What is the purpose of protectives?

A

Cover, cool, dry, or soothe inflamed skin.

258
Q

What is the therapeutic action of topical anesthetics?

A

Block sensation of pain by numbing the skin layers and mucous membranes.

259
Q

Fill in the blank: The drug _______ is a topical anesthetic used for minor burns and insect bites.

A

lidocaine

260
Q

What is a common trade name for procaine?

A

Novocain

261
Q

What are the forms in which topical anesthetics can be administered?

A

Sprays, creams, gargles, suppositories, and other preparations.

262
Q

What is the therapeutic action of urea?

A

Promotes shedding of scales and crusts in conditions with dry, scaly skin.

263
Q

What is salicylic acid used for?

A

Removes warts and corns and aids in penetration of antifungal drugs.

264
Q

Name a common moisturizing lotion.

A

Cetaphil moisturizing lotion

265
Q

What does the abbreviation Bx stand for?

A

biopsy

266
Q

What does the abbreviation BCC represent?

A

basal cell carcinoma

267
Q

What does C&S stand for in the context of integumentary procedures?

A

culture and sensitivity

268
Q

What does the abbreviation CA refer to?

A

cancer; chronological age; cardiac arrest

269
Q

What does FS stand for?

A

frozen section

270
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation ID?

A

intradermal

271
Q

What does I&D stand for?

A

incision and drainage

272
Q

What does IMP mean in medical terminology?

A

impression (synonymous with diagnosis)

273
Q

What does IV stand for?

A

intravenous

274
Q

What does TNM represent?

A

tumor-node-metastasis

275
Q

What is the abbreviation ung short for?

A

ointment

276
Q

What does XP stand for?

A

xeroderma pigmentosum

277
Q

What does XDP represent?

A

xeroderma pigmentosum

Med Term (9 decks)

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