Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Med Term > Chapter 4: Body Structure > Flashcards

Chapter 4: Body Structure Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structural component of the nucleus composed of nucleic acids and proteins?

A

Chromatin

Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes during cell division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are threadlike structures within the nucleus that carry hereditary information?

A

Chromosomes

Each sperm or egg has 23 unpaired chromosomes. After fertilization, each cell of the embryo has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What molecule holds genetic information and is capable of replicating?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

DNA produces an exact copy whenever the cell divides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is defined as the sum of all physical and chemical changes that take place in a cell or an organism?

A

Metabolism

Metabolism includes both anabolism (building up) and catabolism (breaking down) of body constituents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a cellular structure that provides a specialized function called?

A

Organelle

Examples of organelles include the nucleus, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the five levels of organization in the human body?

A
  • Cellular level
  • Tissue level
  • Organ level
  • System level
  • Organism level

Each level builds on the previous one and contributes to the structure and function of the entire organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Delete

A

[Organism]

This is one of the five levels of organization relevant to understanding anatomy, physiology, and pathology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: Chromatin is only present during cell division.

A

False

Chromatin is present in the nucleus at all times but condenses to form chromosomes during cell division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is chromatin?

A

Structural component of the nucleus, composed of proteins and nucleic acids. Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes during cell division.

Chromatin plays a crucial role in gene expression and DNA replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are chromosomes composed of?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

Chromosomes carry hereditary information encoded in genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many unpaired chromosomes does each sperm or egg have?

A

23 unpaired chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens to the number of chromosomes after fertilization?

A

Each cell of the embryo then has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What molecule holds genetic information?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define metabolism.

A

Sum of all physical and chemical changes that take place in a cell or an organelle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two main processes included in metabolism?

A
  • Anabolism (building up)
  • Catabolism (breaking down)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an organelle?

A

Cellular structure that provides a specialized function, such as the nucleus, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the first level of organization in the human body?

A

Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List the five levels of organization in the human body.

A
  • Cells
  • Tissues
  • Organs
  • Systems
  • Organism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False: Each level of organization in the human body builds on the previous level.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the smallest structural and functional unit of life?

A

Cell

Cells perform all activities associated with life, including utilizing food, facilitating reproduction, and eliminating waste products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What three main structures do all cells share?

A
  • Cell membrane
  • Cytoplasm
  • Nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the study of the body at the cellular level called?

A

Cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function of the cell membrane?

A

Acts as a barrier that supports and protects the intracellular contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the jellylike matrix within the cell membrane called?

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the nucleus responsible for?

A
  • Metabolism
  • Growth
  • Reproduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What complex molecule carries the genetic blueprint of the organism?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What structure do chromatin form when the cell is ready to divide?

A

Chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes does each body cell contain, except for the female ovum and male spermatozoa?

A

23 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Approximately how many genes determine unique human characteristics?

A

20,000-25,000 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is tissue composed of?

A

Similar cells that perform specialized or common functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the study of tissues called?

A

Histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the four types of tissues in the body?

A
  • Epithelial tissue
  • Connective tissue
  • Muscle tissue
  • Nervous tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does epithelial tissue do?

A
  • Covers surfaces of organs
  • Lines cavities and canals
  • Forms tubes and ducts
  • Provides secreting portions of glands
  • Makes up the outer layer of the skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the main function of muscle tissue?

A

Provides contractile tissue responsible for movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the role of nervous tissue?

A

Transmits electrical impulses as it relays information throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are organs composed of?

A

Two or more tissue types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an example of an organ and its tissue composition?

A

Stomach - composed of connective, muscle, epithelial, and nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a body system?

A

Composed of varying numbers of organs and accessory structures with similar or related functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the main organs of the gastrointestinal system?

A
  • Esophagus
  • Stomach
  • Small intestine
  • Colon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the main function of the digestive system?

A

Digest food, remove and absorb nutrients, and expel waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the highest level of organization in the body?

A

Organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What defines an organism?

A

A complete living entity capable of independent existence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the anatomical position?

A

A body posture used as a reference for locating anatomical parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In the anatomical position, how is the body positioned?

A

Standing erect, facing forward, arms at sides, palms turned forward, feet parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a plane in anatomical terms?

A

An imaginary flat surface that divides the body into two sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the three commonly used planes in anatomy?

A
  • Coronal (frontal)
  • Transverse (horizontal)
  • Midsagittal (median)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the coronal (frontal) plane divide the body into?

A

Anterior and posterior sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does the transverse (horizontal) plane divide the body into?

A

Top and bottom sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the midsagittal (median) plane do?

A

Divides the body into right and left halves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What imaging procedures produce three-dimensional images on more than one plane?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT)

These procedures help detect structural abnormalities and body masses not visible with standard x-rays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are directional terms used for in anatomy?

A

To indicate the position of structures, surfaces, and regions of the body

Directional terms are always identified relative to the anatomical position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does the term ‘superior’ mean in directional terms?

A

Toward the head or upper portion of a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does the term ‘inferior’ refer to in anatomical terminology?

A

Away from the head, or toward the tail or lower part of a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Fill in the blank: Movement away from the midsagittal (median) plane of the body is called _______.

A

Abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the definition of ‘adduction’?

A

Movement toward the midsagittal (median) plane of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does ‘medial’ pertain to?

A

The midline of the body or structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the definition of ‘lateral’?

A

Pertaining to a side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the significance of the dorsal cavity?

A

It is divided into the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity, containing the brain and spinal cord respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

The diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What organs are contained in the abdominal cavity?

A

Liver, stomach, intestines, and kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does the term ‘visceral’ refer to?

A

Pertaining to the viscera, or internal organs, especially the abdominal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does ‘prone’ mean in anatomical terms?

A

Lying on the abdomen, face down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does ‘supine’ mean?

A

Lying horizontally on the back, face up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or False: The dorsal cavity is separated by a wall into the cranial and spinal cavities.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the function of body cavities?

A

To hold, protect, separate, and support internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the definition of ‘proximal’?

A

Nearer to the center (trunk of the body) or to the point of attachment to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the definition of ‘distal’?

A

Further from the center (trunk of the body) or from the point of attachment to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does ‘superficial’ mean in anatomical context?

A

Toward the surface of the body (external)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does ‘deep’ refer to?

A

Away from the surface of the body (internal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does ‘palmar’ pertain to?

A

The palm of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does ‘plantar’ refer to?

A

The sole of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the two main body cavities?

A

Dorsal cavity and ventral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the role of meninges in the dorsal cavity?

A

They are membranes that line the cranial and spinal cavities and cover the brain and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the two methods used to divide the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

Quadrants and regions

These methods help in describing the location of abdominal and pelvic organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How many quadrants are there in the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

Four

The quadrants are used for descriptive and diagnostic purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the abbreviations for the right upper and left lower quadrants?

A

RUQ and LLQ

RUQ stands for Right Upper Quadrant and LLQ stands for Left Lower Quadrant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What major structures are found in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

A
  • Right lobe of the liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Part of the pancreas
  • Part of the small and large intestines

These structures are critical for digestion and metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What major structures are located in the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?

A
  • Part of the small and large intestines
  • Left ovary
  • Left fallopian tube
  • Left ureter

These structures are involved in digestion and reproductive functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the purpose of dividing the abdominopelvic cavity into quadrants?

A

To locate specific sites of the abdomen for descriptive and diagnostic purposes

Clinicians use quadrants for identifying pain, lesions, and incision sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Name the nine regions of the abdominopelvic cavity.

A
  • Right hypochondriac
  • Epigastric
  • Left hypochondriac
  • Right lumbar
  • Umbilical
  • Left lumbar
  • Right inguinal (iliac)
  • Hypogastric
  • Left inguinal (iliac)

These regions help in identifying the location of underlying body structures and visceral organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is located in the epigastric region?

A

The stomach

The epigastric region is crucial for understanding digestive issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ cavity is divided into four quadrants.

A

abdominopelvic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

True or False: The abdominopelvic cavity is divided into eight regions.

A

False

It is divided into nine regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the location of the right inguinal (iliac) region?

A

Lower right lateral region

This region is often associated with appendicitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the significance of the quadrants in clinical examinations?

A

They provide a point of reference for identifying pain and lesions

Clinicians describe conditions based on quadrant locations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is located in the right inguinal region?

A

Appendix

This region is commonly examined for appendicitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the function of the diaphragm in relation to body cavities?

A

Separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity

The diaphragm plays a key role in respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does the term ‘dorsal’ refer to?

A

Posterior

In anatomical terms, dorsal indicates the back side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the abbreviation for the left upper quadrant?

A

LUQ

LUQ stands for Left Upper Quadrant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the spine also known as?

A

Vertebral column or backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How many irregular bones compose the spine?

A

26 vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the sections of the spine?

A
  • Cervical (neck)
  • Thoracic (chest)
  • Lumbar (loin)
  • Sacral (lower back)
  • Coccyx (tailbone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the combining form for ‘cell’?

A

cyt/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the meaning of ‘hist/o’?

A

Tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does a cytologist study?

A

Formation, structure, and function of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is histology?

A

The branch of science that investigates the microscopic structures and functions of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does the combining form ‘kary/o’ refer to?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does ‘karyolysis’ mean?

A

Separation, destruction, or loosening of the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the meaning of ‘nucle/o’?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What does ‘anter/o’ mean?

A

Anterior, front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What does ‘caud/o’ refer to?

A

Tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What does ‘dist/o’ mean?

A

Far, farthest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What does ‘dors/o’ refer to?

A

Back (of body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does ‘infer/o’ mean?

A

Lower, below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does ‘later/o’ refer to?

A

Side, to one side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does ‘medi/o’ mean?

A

Middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What does ‘poster/o’ refer to?

A

Back (of body), behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does ‘proxim/o’ mean?

A

Near, nearest

109
Q

What does ‘ventr/o’ refer to?

A

Belly, belly side

110
Q

What is the combining form for ‘white’?

A

albin/o

111
Q

What is albinism characterized by?

A

Partial or total lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes

112
Q

What does ‘leuk/o’ refer to?

A

White

113
Q

What is a leukocyte?

A

A white blood cell

114
Q

What does ‘hetero’ in ‘heterochromic’ imply?

A

Different

115
Q

What condition is associated with heterochromia?

A

Iris or sections of the iris of the eyes having different colors

116
Q

What does the prefix ‘cirrh/o’ mean?

A

yellow

117
Q

Define cirrhosis.

A

Abnormal condition characterized by yellowing of the skin, sclera, and mucous membranes due to increased bilirubin

118
Q

What does the suffix ‘-osis’ indicate?

A

abnormal condition; increase

119
Q

What is jaundice?

A

Yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera caused by excessive bilirubin in the blood

120
Q

What does ‘xanth/o’ refer to?

A

yellow

121
Q

What is a xanthoma?

A

A nodule or patch composed of lipoid material, commonly associated with disturbances in lipid metabolism

122
Q

What does the term ‘cyan/o’ refer to?

A

blue

123
Q

What is cyanosis?

A

Bluish discoloration of the skin associated with lack of oxygen in the blood

124
Q

Define erythrocyte.

A

Red blood cell

125
Q

What does the prefix ‘melan/o’ mean?

A

black

126
Q

What is melanoma?

A

A malignancy that arises from melanocytes

127
Q

What does ‘poli/o’ refer to?

A

gray; gray matter (of the brain or spinal cord)

128
Q

Define poliomyelitis.

A

Inflammation of the spinal cord gray matter

129
Q

What is the meaning of ‘radi/o’?

A

radiation, x-ray

130
Q

What is a radiologist?

A

A physician who employs imaging techniques to diagnose and treat diseases

131
Q

What does ‘tom/o’ mean?

A

to cut

132
Q

Define tomography.

A

An imaging procedure that produces images appearing as cuts or slices of an organ or structure

133
Q

What does ‘viscer/o’ refer to?

A

internal organs

134
Q

What does the suffix ‘-ic’ indicate?

A

pertaining to

135
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a term that refers to the lower back.

A

lumb/ar

136
Q

What does the prefix ‘infra-‘ mean?

A

below, under

137
Q

What does the prefix ‘peri-‘ mean?

A

around

138
Q

What does ‘super/’ refer to?

A

upper, above

139
Q

What is the meaning of ‘ultra-‘?

A

excess, beyond

140
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

The stable internal environment required by body cells for survival

141
Q

What is the definition of disease?

A

A pathological condition that presents a group of signs, symptoms, and clinical findings

142
Q

What are signs in a medical context?

A

Objective indicators that are observable

143
Q

What are symptoms?

A

Subjective indicators of disease that only the patient can experience

144
Q

What are clinical findings?

A

Results of radiological, laboratory, and other medical procedures performed on the patient

145
Q

What is a diagnosis (Dx)?

A

The cause and nature of a disease

146
Q

What is a prognosis?

A

The prediction of the course of a disease and its probable outcome

147
Q

Define idiopathic disease.

A

A disease whose cause is unknown or exists without any known cause

148
Q

What can complications arise from?

A

Diseases, injuries, or treatments

149
Q

What does the prefix ‘cirrh/o’ mean?

A

yellow

150
Q

Define cirrhosis.

A

Abnormal condition characterized by yellowing of the skin, sclera, and mucous membranes due to increased bilirubin

151
Q

What does the suffix ‘-osis’ indicate?

A

abnormal condition; increase

152
Q

What is jaundice?

A

Yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera caused by excessive bilirubin in the blood

153
Q

What does ‘xanth/o’ refer to?

A

yellow

154
Q

What is a xanthoma?

A

A nodule or patch composed of lipoid material, commonly associated with disturbances in lipid metabolism

155
Q

What does the term ‘cyan/o’ refer to?

A

blue

156
Q

What is cyanosis?

A

Bluish discoloration of the skin associated with lack of oxygen in the blood

157
Q

Define erythrocyte.

A

Red blood cell

158
Q

What does the prefix ‘melan/o’ mean?

A

black

159
Q

What is melanoma?

A

A malignancy that arises from melanocytes

160
Q

What does ‘poli/o’ refer to?

A

gray; gray matter (of the brain or spinal cord)

161
Q

Define poliomyelitis.

A

Inflammation of the spinal cord gray matter

162
Q

What is the meaning of ‘radi/o’?

A

radiation, x-ray

163
Q

What is a radiologist?

A

A physician who employs imaging techniques to diagnose and treat diseases

164
Q

What does ‘tom/o’ mean?

A

to cut

165
Q

Define tomography.

A

An imaging procedure that produces images appearing as cuts or slices of an organ or structure

166
Q

What does ‘viscer/o’ refer to?

A

internal organs

167
Q

What does the suffix ‘-ic’ indicate?

A

pertaining to

168
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a term that refers to the lower back.

A

lumb/ar

169
Q

What does the prefix ‘infra-‘ mean?

A

below, under

170
Q

What does the prefix ‘peri-‘ mean?

A

around

171
Q

What does ‘super/’ refer to?

A

upper, above

172
Q

What is the meaning of ‘ultra-‘?

A

excess, beyond

173
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

The stable internal environment required by body cells for survival

174
Q

What is the definition of disease?

A

A pathological condition that presents a group of signs, symptoms, and clinical findings

175
Q

What are signs in a medical context?

A

Objective indicators that are observable

176
Q

What are symptoms?

A

Subjective indicators of disease that only the patient can experience

177
Q

What are clinical findings?

A

Results of radiological, laboratory, and other medical procedures performed on the patient

178
Q

What is a diagnosis (Dx)?

A

The cause and nature of a disease

179
Q

What is a prognosis?

A

The prediction of the course of a disease and its probable outcome

180
Q

Define idiopathic disease.

A

A disease whose cause is unknown or exists without any known cause

181
Q

What can complications arise from?

A

Diseases, injuries, or treatments

182
Q

What are the categories of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures?

A

Clinical, surgical, endoscopic, laboratory, and imaging procedures

183
Q

True or False: Many surgical procedures are performed without the aid of radiological methods.

A

False

184
Q

What is an adhesion?

A

Abnormal fibrous band that holds or binds together tissues that are normally separated

185
Q

How can adhesions occur within body cavities?

A

As a result of surgery

186
Q

What is edema?

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid within tissue spaces

187
Q

What causes edema?

A

Systemic disease or failure of the lymphatic system to drain tissue fluid

188
Q

What is pitting edema?

A

Condition where indentation persists after the release of pressure

189
Q

Fill in the blank: A variety of _____ and therapeutic procedures can help identify and treat diseases.

A

diagnostic

190
Q

What type of scan shows a tumor in the eye?

A

Computed tomography (CT) scan

191
Q

What imaging technique uses colors to indicate blood flow direction?

A

Ultrasonography

192
Q

What does a nuclear scan typically assess?

A

The liver and spleen

193
Q

What is the purpose of a Positron emission tomography (PET) scan?

A

To visualize brain activity in transverse section

194
Q

What does MRI stand for?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging

195
Q

True or False: Imaging procedures can only be used for diagnosis, not therapy.

A

False

196
Q

List the imaging procedures mentioned.

A
  • Chest radiograph
  • Ultrasonography
  • Nuclear scan
  • CT scan
  • MRI scan
  • PET scan
197
Q

What does the term ‘febrile’ mean?

A

Having or showing symptoms of a fever

198
Q

Define gangrene

A

Death and decay of soft tissue, usually caused by circulatory obstruction or infection

Risk of developing gangrene of the extremities is associated with diabetes and atherosclerosis as a result of poor circulation.

199
Q

What is a hernia?

A

Protrusion of any organ through the structure that normally contains it

200
Q

Define inflammation

A

Body defense against injury, infection, or allergy marked by redness, swelling, heat, and pain, sometimes with loss of function

201
Q

What is mycosis?

A

Any fungal infection in or on the body

Mycotic infections can be superficial, affecting the skin, or deep seated, affecting structures beneath the skin, especially the brain, bone marrow, or other internal organs.

202
Q

What does ‘perforation’ refer to?

A

Hole that completely penetrates a structure

A perforation in the gastrointestinal tract is a medical emergency because gastrointestinal contents may flow into the abdominal cavity and infect the peritoneum.

203
Q

Define peritonitis

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum, usually caused by bacteria or fungi

Peritonitis requires prompt medical attention to fight the infection and, if necessary, to treat any underlying medical conditions.

204
Q

What is meant by ‘rupture’?

A

Sudden breaking or bursting of a structure or organ

205
Q

What is septicemia?

A

Severe bacterial infection of the tissues that spreads to the blood; also called sepsis or blood poisoning

In septicemia, bacteria and their endotoxins cause severe systemic symptoms.

206
Q

Define suppuration

A

Process of forming pus

Suppuration occurs when the agent that provoked the inflammation is difficult to eliminate.

207
Q

What is auscultation?

A

Listening to the heart, bowel, and lungs with or without a stethoscope to assess the presence and quality of sounds

208
Q

What does inspection involve?

A

General observation of the patient as a whole, progressing to specific body areas

209
Q

Define palpation

A

Gentle application of the hands to a specific structure or body area to determine size, consistency, texture, symmetry, and tenderness of underlying structures

210
Q

What is percussion?

A

Tapping a body structure with the hand or fingers to assess consistency and the presence or absence of fluids within the underlying structure

Percussion is especially helpful in assessing the thorax and abdomen.

211
Q

What does endoscopy refer to?

A

Visual examination of a body cavity or canal using a specialized lighted instrument called an endoscope

212
Q

Fill in the blank: Endoscopy is used for _______.

A

biopsy, surgery, aspiration of fluids, and coagulation of bleeding areas

213
Q

What does the term ‘febrile’ mean?

A

Having or showing symptoms of a fever

214
Q

Define gangrene

A

Death and decay of soft tissue, usually caused by circulatory obstruction or infection

Risk of developing gangrene of the extremities is associated with diabetes and atherosclerosis as a result of poor circulation.

215
Q

What is a hernia?

A

Protrusion of any organ through the structure that normally contains it

216
Q

Define inflammation

A

Body defense against injury, infection, or allergy marked by redness, swelling, heat, and pain, sometimes with loss of function

217
Q

What is mycosis?

A

Any fungal infection in or on the body

Mycotic infections can be superficial, affecting the skin, or deep seated, affecting structures beneath the skin, especially the brain, bone marrow, or other internal organs.

218
Q

What does ‘perforation’ refer to?

A

Hole that completely penetrates a structure

A perforation in the gastrointestinal tract is a medical emergency because gastrointestinal contents may flow into the abdominal cavity and infect the peritoneum.

219
Q

Define peritonitis

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum, usually caused by bacteria or fungi

Peritonitis requires prompt medical attention to fight the infection and, if necessary, to treat any underlying medical conditions.

220
Q

What is meant by ‘rupture’?

A

Sudden breaking or bursting of a structure or organ

221
Q

What is septicemia?

A

Severe bacterial infection of the tissues that spreads to the blood; also called sepsis or blood poisoning

In septicemia, bacteria and their endotoxins cause severe systemic symptoms.

222
Q

Define suppuration

A

Process of forming pus

Suppuration occurs when the agent that provoked the inflammation is difficult to eliminate.

223
Q

What is auscultation?

A

Listening to the heart, bowel, and lungs with or without a stethoscope to assess the presence and quality of sounds

224
Q

What does inspection involve?

A

General observation of the patient as a whole, progressing to specific body areas

225
Q

Define palpation

A

Gentle application of the hands to a specific structure or body area to determine size, consistency, texture, symmetry, and tenderness of underlying structures

226
Q

What is percussion?

A

Tapping a body structure with the hand or fingers to assess consistency and the presence or absence of fluids within the underlying structure

Percussion is especially helpful in assessing the thorax and abdomen.

227
Q

What does endoscopy refer to?

A

Visual examination of a body cavity or canal using a specialized lighted instrument called an endoscope

228
Q

Fill in the blank: Endoscopy is used for _______.

A

biopsy, surgery, aspiration of fluids, and coagulation of bleeding areas

229
Q

What is a blood chemistry analysis?

A

Laboratory test, usually performed on serum, to determine biochemical imbalances, abnormalities, and nutritional conditions.

An example of a blood chemistry analysis is the cholesterol test.

230
Q

What does a complete blood count (CBC) evaluate?

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets to determine anemias, infections, and other diseases.

The CBC is usually included as part of routine physical examinations.

231
Q

What is computed tomography (CT)?

A

Imaging technique that rotates an x-ray emitter around the area to be evaluated and measures the intensity of transmitted rays from different angles.

It generates a detailed cross-sectional image that may detect tumor masses, bone displacement, and fluid accumulation.

232
Q

What is fluoroscopy?

A

Technique in which x-rays are directed through the body to a fluorescent screen that displays internal structures in continuous motion.

It helps to view the motion of organs and follow the movement of contrast dye.

233
Q

What does magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) use to produce images?

A

Radio waves and a strong magnetic field, rather than an x-ray beam.

MRI provides superior soft tissue contrast and does not usually require a contrast medium.

234
Q

What is a nuclear scan?

A

Technique in which a radioactive material called a tracer is introduced into the body, and a specialized camera produces images of organs and structures.

Radiation comes from inside the body and is detected to produce an image.

235
Q

What is positron emission tomography (PET)?

A

Computed tomography that records positrons emitted from a radiopharmaceutical to produce a cross-sectional image of metabolic activity of body tissues.

PET is particularly useful in scanning the brain and nervous system.

236
Q

What is radiography?

A

Technique in which x-rays are passed through the body or area and captured on film to generate an image.

Radiography of soft tissue usually requires the use of a contrast medium.

237
Q

What is single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)?

A

Radiological technique that integrates computed tomography (CT) and a radioactive material injected into the bloodstream to visualize blood flow to tissues and organs.

SPECT differs from a PET scan in that the tracer remains in the bloodstream.

238
Q

What is ultrasonography (US)?

A

Technique in which high-frequency sound waves are directed at soft tissue and reflected as echoes to produce an image on a monitor.

It creates real-time moving images and is commonly used during pregnancy.

239
Q

True or False: A nuclear scan involves directing radiation into the body.

A

False

Radiation comes from inside the body instead.

240
Q

Fill in the blank: The CBC is used to determine _______.

A

[anemias, infections, and other diseases]

241
Q

What imaging technique is superior for most central nervous system images?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

242
Q

What is the primary benefit of using ultrasonography during pregnancy?

A

To observe fetal growth and study other internal organs for possible pathologies.

243
Q

What is a surgical biopsy?

A

Removal of a representative tissue sample from a body site for microscopic examination, usually to establish a diagnosis.

244
Q

What is an excisional biopsy?

A

Biopsy in which the entire lesion is removed.

245
Q

What is an incisional biopsy?

A

Biopsy in which only a small sample of the lesion is removed.

246
Q

What does surgical ablation involve?

A

Removal of a body part, pathway, or function by surgery, chemical destruction, electrocutery, freezing, or radio frequency (RF).

247
Q

What are common uses for ablation procedures?

A
  • Treating atrial fibrillation
  • Treating varicose veins
  • Destroying abnormal tissues in organs such as the lungs, liver, kidneys, and uterus.
248
Q

Define anastomosis.

A

Surgical joining of two ducts, vessels, or bowel segments to allow flow from one to another.

249
Q

What is curettage?

A

Scraping of a body cavity with a spoon-shaped instrument called a curette (curet).

250
Q

What is electrocauterization?

A

Use of an electrically activated instrument to burn and destroy diseased tissue.

251
Q

What is the purpose of incision and drainage (I&D)?

A

Incision made to allow the free flow of fluids and pus from a wound, abscess, or body cavity.

252
Q

What is laser surgery used for?

A

Use of a high-intensity laser light beam to remove diseased tissues, to stop bleeding, or for cosmetic purposes.

253
Q

What is a revision surgical procedure?

A

Surgical procedure used to replace or compensate for a previously implanted device or correct an undesirable result or effect of a previous surgery.

254
Q

What does the abbreviation ‘AP’ stand for?

A

Anteroposterior.

255
Q

What does ‘Bx’ or ‘bx’ represent?

A

Biopsy.

256
Q

What does ‘CBC’ stand for?

A

Complete blood count.

257
Q

What does ‘CT’ stand for?

A

Computed tomography.

258
Q

What does ‘DNA’ stand for?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid.

259
Q

What is the meaning of ‘Dx’?

A

Diagnosis.

260
Q

What does ‘I&D’ mean?

A

Incision and drainage.

261
Q

Fill in the blank: ‘MRI’ stands for _______.

A

Magnetic resonance imaging.

262
Q

Fill in the blank: ‘PET’ stands for _______.

A

Positron emission tomography.

263
Q

What does ‘RF’ refer to?

A

Rheumatoid factor; radio frequency.

264
Q

What does ‘RLQ’ stand for?

A

Right lower quadrant.

265
Q

What does ‘RUQ’ stand for?

A

Right upper quadrant.

266
Q

What does ‘SPECT’ represent?

A

Single-photon emission computed tomography.

267
Q

What does ‘Sx’ mean?

A

Symptom.

268
Q

What does ‘U&L’ or ‘U/L’ mean?

A

Upper and lower.

269
Q

What does ‘US’ stand for?

A

Ultrasound, ultrasonography.

Med Term (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions