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ABT Test COPY for AeJ > Chapter 1 - Toxicological Principles > Flashcards

Chapter 1 - Toxicological Principles Flashcards

1
Q

A newly formed hapten complex usually stimulates the formation of a significant amount of antibodies in…. A. 1-2 minutes B. 1-2 hours C. 1-2 days D. 1-2 weeks

A

D. 1-2 weeks

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2
Q

Prolonged muscle relaxation in response to succinylcholine is an example of a/an…. A. IGE-mediated allergic reaction B. Idiosyncratic reaction C. Immune complex reaction D. Reaction related to a genetic increase in liver enzyme activity

A

B. idiosyncratic reaction

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3
Q

Increased production of methemoglobin is due to a decrease in activity of…. A. Cytochrome P450 2B6 B. NADH cytochrome b5 reductase C. Cytochrome oxidase D. Cytochrome a3

A

B. NADH cytochrome b5 reductase

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4
Q

The most common target organ of toxicity is the… A. Heart B. Lungs C. CNS D. Skin

A

C. CNS

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5
Q

The organs least involved in systemic toxicity are… A. Brain and peripheral nerves B. Muscle and bone C. Liver and kidney D. Hematopoietic system and lungs

A

B. Muscle and bone

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6
Q

If 2 organophosphate insecticides are absorbed into an organism, the results will be… A. An additive effect B. A synergistic effect C. Potentiation of effect D. Subtraction of effect

A

A. An additive effect

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7
Q

If ethanol and carbon tetrachloride are chronically absorbed into an organism, the result will be…. A. An additive effect B. A synergistic effect C. Potentiation of effect D. Subtraction of effect

A

B. A synergistic effect

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8
Q

If isopropyl alcohol and carbon tetrachloride are chronically absorbed into an organism, the effect on the liver will be…. A. An additive effect B. A synergistic effect C. Potentiation of effect D. Subtraction of effect

A

C. Potentiation of effect

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9
Q

The treatment of strychnine-induced convulsions by diazepam is an example of… A. Chemical antagonism B. Dispositional antagonism C. Receptor antagonism D. Functional antagonism

A

D. Functional antagonism

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10
Q

The use of antitoxin in the treatment of snakebites is an example of… A. Dispositional antagonism B. Chemical antagonism C. Receptor antagonism D. Functional antagonism

A

B. Chemical antagonism

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11
Q

The use of charcoal to prevent the absorption of diazepam is an example of… A. Dispositional antagonism B. Chemical antagonism C. Receptor antagonism D. Functional antagonism

A

A. Dispositional antagonism

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12
Q

The use of tamoxifen in certain breast cancers is an example of… A. Dispositional antagonism B. Chemical antagonism C. Receptor antagonism D. Functional antagonism

A

C. Receptor antagonism

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13
Q

Chemicals known to produce dispositional tolerances are… A. Benzene and xylene B. trichloroethylene and methyl chloride C. Paraquat and diaquat D. Carbon tetrachloride and cadmium

A

D. CCl4 and Cd

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14
Q

The most rapid exposure to a chemical would occur through which route… A. Oral B. Subcutaneous C. Inhalation D. Intramuscular

A

C. Inhalation

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15
Q

A chemical that is toxic to the brain but which is detoxified in the liver would be… A. More toxic orally than intramuscularly B. More toxic rectally than intraveniously C. More toxic via inhalation than orally D. More toxic on the skin than intraveniously

A

C. More toxic via inhalation than orally

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16
Q

The LD50 is calculated from… A. A quantal dose-response curve B. A hormesis D/R curve C. A graded D/R curve D. A log-log D/R curve

A

A. A quantal D/R curve

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17
Q

A U-shaped graded toxicity D/R curve is seen in humans with… A. Pesticides B. Sedatives C. Opiates D. Vitamins

A

D. Vitamins

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18
Q

The TD1/ED99 is called… A. Margin of safety B. Therapeutic index C. Potency ratio D. Efficacy ratio

A

A. Margin of safety

19
Q

All of the following are reasons for selective toxicity except… A. Transport differences between cells B. Biochemical differences between cells C. Cytology of male and female neurons D. Cytology of plant cells versus animal cells

A

C. Cytology of male and female neurons

20
Q

Hereditary differences in a single gene that occur in more than 1% of the population are referred to as… A. Significant mutations B. Dominant mutations C. Genetic polymorphisms D. Sister chromatid exchange

A

C. Genetic polymorphisms

21
Q

Which of the following statements is true? A. Chemical carcinogens in animals are always carcinogens in humans B. A chemical that is carcinogenic in humans is carcinogenic in at least one animal species C. From a regulating perspective, carcinogens are considered to have a threshold D/R curve D. Arsenic is a carcinogen in humans and nearly all animal species tested.

A

B. A chemical that is carcinogenic in humans is usually carcinogenic in at least 1 animal species.

22
Q

The percentage of mating resulting in pregnancy is called the… A. Fertility index B. Gestation index C. Viability index D. Survival index

A

A. Fertility index

23
Q

The percentage of pregnancies resulting in live litters is the… A. Fertility index B. Gestation index C. Viability index D. Survival index

A

B. Gestation Index

24
Q

The lactation index in rats is the… A. Number of live births that breast-feed B. Number of days an animal breast-feeds C. Calories lost per day by a mother who breast-feeds D. % of live animals at 4 days that survive the 21 day lactation period

A

D. % of live animals at 4 days that survive the 21 day lactation period

25
Q

Which of the following statements are false? A. There is good concordance between human and animal neurotoxicity assessment B. The developing nervous system is insensitive to toxicant exposure C. Monkeys can be used to test low-level effects of neurotoxicants D. In vitro cell cultures can be used in neurotoxicity testing

A

B. The developing nervous system is insensitive to toxicant exposure

26
Q

A severe cytokine response that progressed to a systemic organ failure occurred in a phase 1 study involving the use of… A. An uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation B. A COX2 inhibitor C. A CD28 monoclonal antibody D. A microtubule assembly inhibitor

A

C. A CD28 monoclonal antibody

27
Q

Within the human genome, how much variability in DNA sequence exists between any 2 individuals? A. 0.01% B. 0.1% C. 0.5% D. 1.0%

A

B. 0.1%

28
Q

Which of the following can be used to characterize a response to a toxicant? A. Proteomics B. Transcriptomics C. Metabonomics D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

29
Q

All of the following are true concerning animal carcinogenicity studies except… A. Historic control data is never considered B. A rodent carcinogenicity study usually takes 2 years C. It is impractical to use doses that occur in humans D. Gender differences in background tumor incidence are sometimes observed

A

A. Historic control data is never considered

30
Q

Examples of significant conc. of a toxicant in a tissue that is not the target organ include all of the following except… A. Lead in bone B. DDT in adipose tissue C. Paraquat in lungs D. TCDD in adipose tissue

A

C. Paraquat in lungs

31
Q

The ability of a chemical to cause skin and eye irritation is usually evaluated in a… A. Rabbit B. Rat C. Mouse D. Dog

A

A. Rabbit

32
Q

Before a potential pharmaceutical compound can be given to humans… A. An NDA must be filed with the FDA B. An IND must be filed with the FDA C. Acute toxicity studies on 4 species must be conducted D. A 2 year dog carcinogenicity study must be complete

A

B. An IND must be filed with the FDA

33
Q

Phase 1 clinical trials are conducted to determine all of the following except… A. Pharmacokinetics B. Safety C. Rare adverse effects D. Preliminary efficacy

A

C. Rare adverse effects

34
Q

MTD stands for… A. Minimal tolerated dose B. Maximum total dose C. Maximum tolerated dose D. Minimum threshold dose

A

C. Maximum tolerated dose

35
Q

The acute toxicity study in animals provides… A. An approximate lethal dose B. Information on target organs C. Info on dose selection for longer studies D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

36
Q

A subacute toxicity study in rats usually lasts… A. 3 days B. 14 days C. 3 months D. 6 months

A

B. 14 days

37
Q

The period of organogenesis in rats is… A. Days 3-10 B. Days 7-17 C. Days 12-25 D. Days 17-56

A

B. Days 7-17

38
Q

A dose of investigational drug that suppresses body weight gain slightly in a 90 day animal study is… A. LOAEL B. NOAEL C. MTD D. reference dose

A

C. MTD

39
Q

A subchronic animal study required by the FDA will usually include.. A. 2 species (1 rodent, 1 non-rodent) B. both genders C. At least 3 doses (low, med, high) D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

40
Q

When all receptors are occupied by a toxicant and there is a maximum number of receptor-toxicant complexes formed, the response is termed… A. T1/2 B. LCmax C. Emax D. Cmax

A

C. Emax

41
Q

Which of the following statements is true? A. Toxicant-receptor interactions are always reversible B. Receptors for toxicants are always enzymes C. Toxic response is related to toxicant conc. in plasma more so than the conc. at the site of action D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

42
Q

An increase in free drug conc. will… A. Increase the pharmacologic effect B. Decrease the toxic effect C. Decrease the amount of drug filtered at the glomerulus D. None of the above

A

A. Increase the pharmacologic effect

43
Q

A toxic substance produced by biological systems is specifically as a… A. Toxicant B. Toxin C. Xenobiotic D. Poison

A

B. Toxin

44
Q

measures of toxicity other than LD50?

(https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-dentistry/measures-of-toxicity)

A

No toxic effect level (NTEL), which is the largest dose in the most sensitive species in a toxicology study of a given duration which produced no observed toxic effect

no observed adverse effect level (NOAEL), which is the largest dose causing neither observed tissue toxicity nor undesirable physiological effects, such as sedation, seizures or weight loss

maximum tolerated dose (MTD), which usually applies to long-term studies and represents the largest dose tested that caused no obvious signs of ill-health

No observed effect level (NOEL), which represents the threshold for producing any observed pharmacological or toxic effect.

ABT Test COPY for AeJ (32 decks)

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