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Gynecological DMS 113 > CH 47 - US IN OB WORKBOOK EX. COPY > Flashcards

CH 47 - US IN OB WORKBOOK EX. COPY Flashcards

1
Q

bleeding from a normally situated placenta as a result of its complete or partial detachment after the 20th week of gestation

A

abruptio placentae

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2
Q

aspiration of a sample of amniotic fluid through the mother’s abdomen for diagnostic analysis of fetal genetics, maturity, and/or disease

A

amniocentesis

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3
Q

smooth membrane enclosing the fetus and amniotic fluid; it is loosely fused with the outer chorionic membrane except at the placental insertion of the umbilical cord, where the amnion is contiguous with the membranes surrounding the umbilical cord

A

amnion

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4
Q

a neural tube defect where absence of the brain, including the cerebrum, the cerebellum, and basal ganglia, may be present

A

anencephaly

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5
Q

fetal syndromes associated with an abnormal number of chromosomes

A

aneuploidy

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6
Q

the ligatures around the cervix uteri used to treat cervical incompetence during pregnancy

A

cerclage

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7
Q

inferior segment of the uterus, which is normally more than 3.5 cm long during pregnancy, decreasing in length during labor

A

cervix

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8
Q
  • cellular, outermost extraembryonic membrane, composed of trophoblast lined with mesoderm;
  • –the outer_____ (villous chorion) develops villi, which are vascularized by allantoic vessels and give rise to the placenta;
  • the inner _____ (the smooth chorion) is fused with the amnion except at the placental cord insertion
A

chorion

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9
Q

a functional structure within the normal ovary, which is formed from cells lining the graafian follicle after ovulation;

the ___ ____produces estrogen and progesterone and may become enlarged and appear cystic during early pregnancy

A

corpus luteum

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10
Q

vascular structure within the fetal liver that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava and allows oxygenated blood to bypass the liver and return directly to the heart

A

ductus venosus

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11
Q

developing individual from implantation to the end of the 9th week of gestation

A

embryo

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12
Q

age of embryo stated as time from day of conception

A

embryonic age (conception age)

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13
Q

length of pregnancy defined in the United States as number of weeks from first day of last normal menstrual period (LNMP)

A

gestational (menstrual) age

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14
Q

structure lined by the chorion that normally implants within the uterine decidua and contains the developing embryo

A

gestational sac

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15
Q

total number of pregnancies

A

gravidity (G)

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16
Q

abnormal conception in which there is partial or complete conversion of the chorionic villi

A

hydatidiform mole

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17
Q

a condition in which the cervix dilates silently during the second trimester; without intervention, the membranes bulge through the cervix and rupture, and the fetus drops out, resulting in a premature preterm delivery

A

incompetent cervix

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18
Q

reduced growth rate (symmetrical IUGR) or abnormal growth pattern (asymmetrical IUGR) of the fetus, resulting in a small for gestational age (SGA) infant

A

intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

note:

  • reduced growth rate (symmetrical IUGR)
  • abnormal growth pattern (asymmetrical IUGR)
  • small for gestational age (SGA)
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19
Q

thin expanded lower portion of the uterus that forms in the last trimester of pregnancy

A

lower uterine segment

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20
Q

exceptionally large infant with excessive fat deposition in the subcutaneous tissue; most frequently seen in fetuses of diabetic mothers

A

macrosomia

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21
Q

one of several biochemical tests used to assess fetal risk for aneuploidy or fetal defect; a component of the “quad screen,” the normal value of MSAFP varies with gestational age; assessment of gestational age is essential for accurate interpretation of results

A

maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)

22
Q

a collection of fluid that extends behind the fetal neck and along the spine in the first trimester

A

nuchal translucency

23
Q

reduced amount of amniotic fluid

A

oligohydramnios

24
Q

number of live births

A

parity (P)

25
Q

organ of communication in which nutrition and products of metabolism are interchanged between the fetal and maternal blood systems; is formed from the chorion frondosum with a maternal decidual contribution

A

placenta

26
Q

placental implantation encroaches upon the lower uterine segment; if the placenta presents first in late pregnancy, bleeding is inevitable

A

placenta previa

27
Q

excessive amount of amniotic fluid

A

polyhydramnios

28
Q

maternal serum biochemical levels in the second trimester of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), estriol, and inhibin A

A

quad screen

29
Q

a 40-week pregnancy is divided into three 13-week periods from the first day of the last normal menstrual period (weeks 1 through 13, first trimester; weeks 14 through 27, second trimester; week 28 to term, third trimester)

A

trimester

30
Q

connecting lifeline between the fetus and placenta; it contains two umbilical arteries, which carry deoxygenated fetal blood, and one umbilical vein, which carries oxygenated fetal blood encased in Wharton’s jelly

A

umbilical cord

31
Q

a circular structure within the gestational sac seen sonographically between 4 and 10 weeks’ gestational age; the yolk sac supplies nutrition, facilitates waste removal, and is the origin of early hematopoietic stem cells in the embryo; it lies between the chorion and the amnion

A

yolk sac

32
Q

products of conception from fertilization through implantation; the zygotic stage of pregnancy lasts for approximately 12 days after conception

A

zygote

33
Q

innermost thin, transparent fetal membrane that holds the fetus suspended in amniotic fluid

A

amnion

34
Q

KNOW THE INDICATIONS FOR 1st trimester

A

1st trimester

  • confirm intrauterine pregnancy
  • evaluate suspected ectopic pregnancy
  • determine cause of vag. bleeding
  • pelvic pain
  • gestational (menstrual) age
  • multiple pregnancies
  • confirm cardiac activity
  • adjunt to chorionic villous sampling, embryo transfer or loacalization and removal IUD
  • assess for certain fetal anomalies (anenchphaly, in pt w/ high risk)
  • maternal pelvic or adnexal mass or uterine abnormality
  • screen for fetal aneuploidy (measure nuchal translucency
  • suspected hydatidiform mole
35
Q

list the maternal risk factors that increase the chance of having a fetus w/ congenital anomalies

A
  • Increased maternal age
  • abnormal triple screen biochemistry values
  • maternal disease (e.g., diabetes mellitus, systemic lupus erythematosus)
  • increased nuchal translucency
  • a pregnant uterus that is either too small or too large for dates.
36
Q

other risk factors include a previous child born with a(n)____ disorder or exposure to a known _____ drug or infectious agent known to cause birth defects

A

chromosome; teratogenic

37
Q

____ is the total number of pregnancies; and ____ is the number of live births

A

gravidity; parity

38
Q

what 5 important questions should the sonographer ask the patient before beginning an obstetric exam

A
  1. When was the first date of your last menstrual period (LMP or LNMP)?
  2. Do you have any latex allergies?
  3. Are you currently taking any medication?
  4. Have you experienced clinical problems with the pregnancy, such as bleeding, decreased fetal movement, or pelvic pain?
  5. Have you had problems with previous pregnancies, such as incompetent cervix, fibroids, fetal macrosomia or growth restriction, or congenital or chromosomal fetal anomalies?

​

39
Q

quality standards include not only components of the examination protocol but also the following 7 things:

A
  1. Qualifications of personnel performing the examination
  2. Documentation
  3. Equipment specifications
  4. Fetal safety
  5. Quality control
  6. Safety, infection control
  7. Patient education concerns
40
Q

the purpose of national ___ or registry is to assure the public that the person performing the US has the necessary skills, knowledge, and expertise to provide this service

A

registry

41
Q

documentation standards require that a permanent record of measurements and anatomic findings is maintained. true or false?

A

true

42
Q

images need to be labeled with the ____, ____, and _____if appropriate.

A

pt name; date; image orientation

43
Q

describe the US protocol for the 1st trimester pregnancy

A
  • The uterus & adnexa should be evaluated for the presence of a gestational sac, yolk sac, and embryo.
  • Presence or absence of cardiac activity should be reported.
  • Fetal number should be documented.
  • Evaluation of the uterus, adnexal structures, and cul-de-sac
44
Q

describe the US protocol for 2nd and 3rd-trimester pregnancies.

A
  • Fetal life, number, presentation, and activity should be documented.
  • Estimation of the quantity of amniotic fluid should be documented.
  • Placental localization, appearance, and relationship to the internal cervical os should be recorded. The umbilical cord should be imaged and the number of vessels recorded.
  • Gestational age should be assessed by sonographic biometry. First trimester: crown-rump length. Second and third trimesters: IC, BPD, HC, AC, FL.
  • Uterine, adnexal, and cervical evaluation should be performed to document the presence, location, and size of uterine or adnexal masses that may complicate obstetric management. The normal maternal ovaries may not be imaged during the second and third trimesters.
  • Fetal anatomy may be adequately assessed after 18 weeks of gestation. Anatomy may be difficult because of fetal movement, size, or position and/or maternal scars, or increased wall thickness. When anatomy is not seen because of technical limitations, the sonographer should note the reason. A follow-up examination may be ordered
45
Q

list the normal anatomic structures that should be recorded in a standard OB exam in each region during the 2nd or 3rd trimester:

HEAD AND NECK

A
  • Cerebellum
  • choroid plexus
  • cisterna magna
  • lateral cerebral ventricles
  • midline falx
  • cavum septi pellucidi
46
Q

list the normal anatomic structures that should be recorded in a standard OB exam in each region during the 2nd or 3rd trimester:

CHEST

A
  • Four-chamber view of the fetal heart and, if technically feasible, an extended basic cardiac examination that includes both outflow tracts may be attempted
47
Q

list the normal anatomic structures that should be recorded in a standard OB exam in each region during the 2nd or 3rd trimester:

ABDOMEN

A
  • Stomach (presence, size, and situs)
  • kidneys
  • bladder
  • umbilical cord insertion into the fetal abdomen
  • umbilical cord number of vessels
48
Q

list the normal anatomic structures that should be recorded in a standard OB exam in each region during the 2nd or 3rd trimester:

SPINE

A
  • Cervical
  • thoracic
  • lumbar
  • sacral spine
49
Q

list the normal anatomic structures that should be recorded in a standard OB exam in each region during the 2nd or 3rd trimester:

EXTREMITIES

A
  • Presence and absence of arms and legs
50
Q

list the normal anatomic structures that should be recorded in a standard OB exam in each region during the 2nd or 3rd trimester:

GENDER

A
  • Medically indicated in low-risk pregnancies only for assessment of multiple pregnancies
51
Q

indications for 2nd and 3rd trimester US

A
  • gestational age
  • eval fetal anatomy
  • fetal growth
  • vaginal bleeding
  • cervical insufficiency
  • abd/pelvic pain
  • fetal presentation
  • suspected multiple gestations
  • adjunct to amniocentesis or othre procedure
  • discrepancy btwn uterine size or clinical dates
  • pelvic mass
  • suspect hydatidiform mole
  • cerclage placement
  • suspected ectopic preg
  • suspected fetal death
  • suspect uterine abnormality
  • fetal well being
  • amniotic fluid abnormalities
  • placental abruption
  • w/ external cephalic version
  • premature rupture of membranes and/or premature labor
  • abnorm chemical markers
  • eval fetal aomaly
  • eval placenta location (placenta previa)
  • hx of congenital anomaly
  • fetal condition w/ late prenatal care (we cant see anything due to bony structure
  • screen for fetal anomalies

Gynecological DMS 113 (26 decks)

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