Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anesthesia Drugs > Boot Camp Drugs > Flashcards

Boot Camp Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Midazolam MOA

A

GABA agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Midazolam’s other name

A

Versed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Midazolam dosing

A

1-4 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Midazolam onset and duration

A

3 min

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Midazolam advantages (2)

A

1) Rapid onset

2) Minimal respiratory depression when used alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Midazolam disadvantages (2)

A

1) Respiratory depression with opioids

2) Delirium in Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Famotidine other name

A

Pepcid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Famotidine dose to be given

A

20 mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bacitra dose

A

30 cc PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacitra and famotidine MOA

A

Antacid: H2 receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Advantages of Bacitra (2)

A

1) Rapid onset

2) Less damaging to lung than other antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Advantages of Famotidine (pepcid) (1)

A

Reduces gastric acid production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Disadvantages of Bicitra (2)

A

1) Increases gastric volume.

2) Bad taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Disadvantages of Famotidine (2)

A

1) Only affects Ph of gastric secretions

2) Does not neutralize what is already there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Glycopyrolate MOA

A

anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atropine MOA

A

anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Difference between Glycopyrolate and Atropine

A

Glycopyrolate: does not cross BBB

Atropine: crosses BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Neostigmine MOA

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Physiostigmine MOA

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the major difference between Neostigmine and physiostigmine

A

Neostigmine: does not cross BBB
Physiostigmine: Crosses BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is Cisatricurium cleared from the body

A

80% hoffman elemination: Plasma dependent. The rest is hepatically cleared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Onset of action Fentanyl

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Duration of action Fentanyl

A

45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Common side effects Fentanyl (4)

A

1) Respiratory depression
2) Itching
3) N/V
4) Muscle rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MOA propofol

A

GABA agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

other name for propofol

A

Diprovan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Concentration of propofol

A

10mg/cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Induction dose of propofol

A

1.5-2 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Advantages of propofol (2)

A

1) Rapid onset with little hangover

2) anti-emetic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Disadvantages of propofol (4)

A

1) Pain with injection
2) Contraindicated with egg allergy
3) Respiratory depression
4) Hypotension
4) Decreased SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MOA Etomidate

A

GABA agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Induction dose Etomidate

A

.2-.3 mg/Kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Onset of action Etomidate

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Duration of action Etomidate

A

3-10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Advantages of Etomidate (2)

A

1) Little to no hemodynamic depression

2) Does not produce apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Disadvantages of Etomidate (4x)

A

1) Pain on injection
2) Severe nausea/vomiting
3) Myoclonus is common
4) Adrenal suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ketamine MOA

A

NMDA antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ketamine induction doses

A

1-2 mg/kg IV

5-7 mg/kg IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ketamine concentrations (2x)

A

10 mg/cc
or
100mg/cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ketamine onset of action

A

2 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ketamine duration of action

A

10-20 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ketamine advantages (3x)

A

1) Tachycardia and hypertension (good with hypovolemia)
2) Bronchodilation
3) No respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ketamine disadvantages

A

Hallucinations/nightmares (use midazolam to help)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the function of the GABA receptor?

A

Inhibits impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Ativan real name

A

Lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where does Fenoldapam target and what is it used for

A

D1 receptor agonist

Anti hypertensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Succinylcholine dosing

A

1.5-2 mg/kg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Succinylcholine concentration

A

20 mg/cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Succinylcholine onset of action and duration

A

30-60 seconds

3-6 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Succinylcholine disadvantages (4x)

A

1) Muscle pain post op
2) Malignant hyperthermia trigger
3) Increased K+
4) Increased ICP’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Rocuronium dosing

A

0.6-1.2 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Rocuronium concentration

A

10 mg/cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rocuronium onset of action and duration

A

(Depends on dose)
60-90 seconds
~45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Rocuronium advantages (2x)

A

1) Non depolarizing

2) Reversible with sugammadex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Vecuronium doses

A
  1. 1 - 0.2 mg/kg induction

0. 01 -0.02 mg/kg prn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Vecuronium onset of action and duration

A

3 minutes

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Vecuronium MOA

A

Non depolarizing competitive Ach antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Vecuronium disadvantages (2)

A

1) Slow onset~ 3 minutes

2) 50% renal and 50% hepatic excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Vecuronium advantages (2)

A

1) No muscle pain

2) Does not trigger MH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cisatracurium doses

A
  1. 1-0.2 mg/kg IV induction

0. 3 mg/kg q20min prn IV maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cisatracurium onset of action and duration

A

6 minutes

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cisatracurium MOA

A

Non depolarizing competitive Ach antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cisatrarcurium advantages (1)

A

Best use for renal or hepatic failure (hoffman degradation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cisatracurium disadvantages (3)

A

1) Slow onset time ~3 minutes
2) Very expensive
3) Frequently on national shortage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Ephedrine dose

A

Push: 5-10 mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Ephedrine MOA

A

alpha and beta agonist (both direct and indirect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Ephedrine advantages (5)

A

1) rapid onset
2) short duration
3) No reflex bradycardia
4) Increased HR
5) Increased SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Ephedrine disadvantages (1)

A

Tachyphylaxis–>cannot run as an infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Phenylephrine dose

A

50-300 mcg IV push

20 mcg/min gtt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Phenylephrine concentration in stick

A

100 mcg/cc in stick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Phenylephrine MOA

A

Alpha 1 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Phenylephrine advantages (3)

A

1) Rapid onset
2) Short duration
3) Can be used as infusion on Alaris pump

73
Q

Phenylephrine disadvantages (1)

A

Reflex bradycardia

74
Q

Epinephrine dose for 1) hypotension 2) anaphylaxis 3) code

A

1) hypotension 10-50 mcg
2) Anaphylaxis 0.5-1 mg
3) Code: 1 mg (may be multiple times)

75
Q

If giving epinephrine through ETT how much more do you have to give?

A

Double the IV dose

76
Q

How much do you figure out your epi doses with concentrations

A

Take the number on the right and see how many times that number goes into 1,000,000 and that’s your mcg of Epi per ml.

1: 1,000 equals 1,000 mcg/ml = 1mg/ml
1: 10,000 equals 100 mcg/ml = .1 mg/ml
1: 100,000 equals 10 mcg/ml = .01 mg/ml

77
Q

what is the concentration of little epi

A

10 mcg/ml = 0.01 mg/ml

78
Q

what is the concentration of big epi

A

100 mcg/ml = 0.1 mg/ml

79
Q

What is the MOA of epinephrine

A

low dose = more Beta, High doses = more alpha

b1>b2>a1>a2 at low doses

80
Q

Vasopressin dose

A

Push 1 unit at a time, but start with 1-2 units/hr (max 5u/hr)

81
Q

Vasopressin MOA (2)

A

1) V1 receptor (G proteins) leads to vasoconstriction (Ideal vasoconstrictor for patients with pulmonary hypertension)
2) V2 receptor (AC) leads to increased water permeability in collecting ducts

82
Q

Esmolol MOA

A

B1 antagonist

83
Q

Esmolol doses

A

20-50 mg IV

Up to 300 mcg/kg/min gtt

84
Q

Esmolol onset of action time

A

1 minutes

85
Q

Labetalol MOA

A

Alpha and Beta antagonist

86
Q

Labetalol dose

A

5-10 mg IV

87
Q

Labetalol onset of action time

A

Quick but sometimes a little delayed. Wait at least 10 minutes before redosing.

88
Q

Hydralazine MOA

A

Alpha 1 antagonist like (smooth muscle relaxation with NO release.

89
Q

Hydralazine dose

A

2-10 mg IV

90
Q

Hydralazine concentration

A

20 mg/cc

91
Q

Clonidine MOA

A

Alpha 2 agonist

92
Q

Clonidine dose

A

25-50 mcg

93
Q

Clonidine concentration

A

100 mcg/cc

94
Q

Sevoflurane MAC

A

2.2%

95
Q

Desflurane MAC

A

6.1%

96
Q

Isoflurane MAC

A

1.1%

97
Q

NO MAC

A

105%

98
Q

Sevoflurane advantages (3)

A

1) Can be used for induction
2) Brochodilation
3) Fast onset & offset

99
Q

Sevoflurane disadvantages (3)

A

1) Expensive
2) Decreases SVR
3) Myocardial depressant

100
Q

Desflurane advantages (2)

A

1) Fastest onset

2) Bronchodilation

101
Q

Desflurane disadvantages (4)

A

1) Most irritating to the airways
2) Can cause HTN and tachycardia if concentration increased too quickly
3) Decreases SVR
4) Myocardial depressant

102
Q

Isoflurane advantages (2)

A

1) Bronchodilation

2) Cheap

103
Q

Isoflurane disadvantages (3)

A

1) Slow onset & offset
2) Decreases SVR
3) Myocardial depressant

104
Q

Nitrous Oxide advantages (3)

A

1) Cheap
2) Reduces amount of other gasses needed
3) Less CV depression than other gasses

105
Q

Nitrous Oxide disadvantages (2)

A

1) Expands air-filled spaces

2) Combustible just like oxygen

106
Q

Fentanyl dose

A

1-2 mcg/kg IV

107
Q

Fenanyl concentration

A

50 mcg/cc

108
Q

Remifentanyl dose

A

Gtt only: 0.05-2.0 mcg/kg/min

109
Q

Remifentanyl onset of action and duration

A

Onset: 30 seconds
Duration: 5 minutes

110
Q

Remifentanyl advantages (3)

A

1) Peak effect time 1.5 minutes
2) Metabolized by plasma esterases
3) Predictable Offset time 5-10 minutes

111
Q

Sufentanyl doses

A

Load: give up to 1 mcg/kg
Gtt: 0.1-0.6 mcg/kg/hr

112
Q

Sufentanyl onset of action and duration

A

Onset: 30 seconds
Duration: 20-45 minutes

113
Q

Sufentanyl advantages (3)

A

1) Fast onset (slightly slower than fentanyl
2) 10 times more potent than fentanyl
3) For every hour gtt is running, stop 10 minutes prior to wake up.

114
Q

Morphine dose

A

5-10 IV

15-30 mg P.O.

115
Q

Morphine onset and duration

A

Onset: 4 minutes
Duration: 4 hours

116
Q

Morphine disadvantages (3)

A

1) Respiratory depression
2) High histamine release (itching)
3) N/V

117
Q

Dilaudid onset and duration

A

Onset: 5 minutes
Duration: 3 hours

118
Q

Dilaudid advantages

A

Can be used in renal failure

119
Q

Dilaudid disadvantages (2)

A

1) Respiratory depression

2) N/V

120
Q

Naloxone concentration

A

0.4 mg/ml

121
Q

Naloxone dose (to give patient)

A

0.04 mg–>wait for 1 minute then redose

122
Q

Naloxone disadvantage

A

Wears off before the opioid so you need to redose

123
Q

Neostigmine dose

A

.04-.07 mg/kg IV (max of 5 mg)

124
Q

Neostigmine MOA

A

acetylcholine esterase inhibitor

125
Q

Neostigmine concentration

A

1mg/cc

126
Q

Neostigmine advantages

A

Antagonizes non depolarizing muscular blockade

127
Q

Neostigmine disadvantages (2)

A

1) Can cause bradycardia and severe heart block

2) Must give with Glycopyrolate

128
Q

Glycopyrollate MOA

A

Anticholinergic

129
Q

Glycopyrollate dose

A

0.01 mg/kg IV or

20% of Neostigmine dose

130
Q

Glycopyrolate advantage (1)

A

1) Prevents bradycardia from Neostigmine

131
Q

Glycopyrolate disadvantage (1)

A

1) Can cause tachycardia (caution with CAD)

132
Q

Ketoralac’s other name

A

Toradol

133
Q

Ketoralac MOA

A

NSAID

134
Q

Ketoralac dose

A

15-30 mg IV

135
Q

Ketoralac advantage (1)

A

Adjunct to opiods

136
Q

Ketoralac disadvantages (3)

A

1) Caution with bleeding
2) Caution with Elderly
3) Caution with renal dysfunction

137
Q

Ondansetron’s other name

A

Zofran

138
Q

Zofran dose

A

4-8 mg IV

139
Q

Zofran MOA

A

Serotonin 5-HT3 antagonist

140
Q

Zofran advantages (3)

A

1) Safe
2) Effective
3) Ok in elderly

141
Q

Zofran disadvantages (2)

A

1) Prolongs QTc

2) Small risk of bronchospasm (caution with asthmatics)

142
Q

What is droperidol?

A

An antipsychotic that is frequently use for treating nausea and vomiting

143
Q

What is the other name for meperidine and what is it commonly used for

A

Demerol he is frequently use for post operative shivering

144
Q

What is another name for diazepam

A

ValIum

145
Q

What dose of diazepam do you give to stop a Seizure

A

.1 mg per kilogram of diazepam

146
Q

How much more potent is Midozolam compared to diazepam?

A

2-3 times

147
Q

What is the breakdown product of Morphine

A

morphine-6-glucuronide

148
Q

What is dilaudid (real name)

A

Hydromorphone

149
Q

What is the strength of dilaudid vs morphine

A

1 mg Dilaudid = 7 mg morphine

150
Q

What is the active metabolite of dilaudid?

A

No active metabolites, & no histamine release

151
Q

What is the other name for demerol

A

Meperidine

152
Q

What is the active metabolite for demerol

A

Active metabolite: Normeperidine and it lowers the seizure threshold

153
Q

How is demerol excreted

A

renally excreted

154
Q

what is Vicoden

A

Acetaminophen / Hydrocodone

155
Q

what is the difference between Vicoden and Lortab

A

Tylenol amount mixed with the hydrocodone

156
Q

what is percocet

A

Acetaminophen / Oxycodone

157
Q

What is the biggest difference to increase you CO between adults and children

A

– In infants, SV is fixed, so CO is dependent on HR.

– In adults, SV plays a much more important role, particularly when increasing HR is not favorable.

158
Q

How do you calculate CO

A

– CO = 80([MAP-CVP]/SVR)

159
Q

What value is considered a normal pulse pressure

A

Normal PP is ~40 mm Hg at rest, and up to ~100 mm Hg with strenuous exercise.

160
Q

What should you think of with a wide pulse pressure

A

Wide PP (e.g. > 40 mm Hg)

1) aortic regurgitation
2) atherosclerotic vessels
3) High output state (e.g. thyrotoxicosis, AVM, pregnancy, anxiety)

161
Q

What is cushing’s triad with increased ICP’s

A

(Cushings triad: HTN, bradycardia, irregular respirations)

162
Q

Drugs that commonly cause hypotension in OR

A

1) volatile agents
2) opioids
3) Anticholinesterases
4) local anesthetic toxicity
5) vancomycin
6) protamine

163
Q

What is another name for Phenylephrine

A

Neosynephrine

164
Q

What is so significant about Milrinone, Dobutamine as Ionotropes

A

They function as Ionotropes and Vasodilators

165
Q

What is the dose of roc necessary for RSI

A

1-1.2 mg/kg

166
Q

what are the concentrations of NS solutions

A

154 Na+,
154 Cl-
308 Osm

167
Q

What are the concentrations of LR solutions

A 
130 Na+
109 Cl-
4 K+
3 Ca+
28 lactate buffer
273 Osm
168
Q

What is the Ph of LR

A

6.6

169
Q

What is the Ph of NS

A

5.0

170
Q

What are the concentrations of Plasmalyte solutions

A 
148 Na+
98 Cl-
5 K+
0 Ca+
27 acetate
294 Osm
7.4 Ph
171
Q

How do you calculate the amount of fluid (deficit) with burns

A

Parkland Formula

Volume = %BSA x 4 ml/kg x kg

172
Q

What are the Solutions incompatible with pRBC’s (2)

A

LR (theoretical clot formation due to calcium)

D5W or other hypotonic solutions (hemolysis)

173
Q

What is required for compatability of FFP when transfusing?

A

Use ABO-compatible; Rh-incompatible is OK

174
Q

What is required for compatability of platelets when transfusing?

A

Can give ABO-incompatible platelets, Rh tested only

175
Q

What does cryoprecipitate have in it?

A

Contains Factors VIII, XIII, I (fibrinogen), and fibronectin

176
Q

Arterial oxygen content equation

A

Arterial oxygen content= (Hb x 1.36 x SaO2 /100) + (PaO2 x 0.003)

177
Q

Allowable Blood Loss equation

A

Allowable Blood Loss
= [ Hct (start) - Hct (allowed) ] x EBV
_______________________
Hct (start)

178
Q

How do you calculate estimated blood volume

A

Male 70
Female 65
Obese <60

Anesthesia Drugs (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions