Blueprints 5,6,7,8,9,11 Flashcards

1
Q

classic presentation of placenta previa

A

painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, diagnosed via ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

placenta previa and accreta in prior C section mom

A

accounts for 20% of antepartum hemorrhage. associated with accrete in 5% of cases without prior C section and 15-67% with prior C section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

placenta accreta, increta, percreta

A

accreta= abnormal attachment of placenta to uterus, increta= placenta invades myometrium, percreta= invades through myometrium and to the serosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

placental abruption epidemiology

A

30% of all trimester hemorrhages

more often in women with chronic HTN, preeclampsia, cocaine/meth use, history of abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

placental abruption presentation

A

vaginal bleeding, painful contractions, firm, tender uterus. 20% of pts have no bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

placental abruption complications

A

hypovolemic shock, DIC, preterm delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

uterine rupture

A

1/200 women with prior C section. increased fetal and maternal mortality. need immediate laparotomy, delivery of fetus, and repair of rupture site/laparatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

fetal vessel rupture

A

rare- association with multiple gestation and/or velamentous cord insertion (exposed vessels not covered with whatnot’s jelly). perinatal mortality of up to 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

sinusoidal FHR pattern

A

fetal vessel rupture-> need immediate C section delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

preterm delivery rate in pregnancy

A

10% of all pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how to treat preterm delivery

A

tocolytics (anti contraction medications) like B agonists, magnesium, CCB, and NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tocolytics effectiveness

A

they are only marginally effective at slowing down contractions but they may buy time to beta methadone to accelerate fetal lung maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

preterm versus premature ROM

A

premature rupture of membranes: ROM that occurs before onset of labor. preterm rupture of membranes is ROM that occurs before 37 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

latency period relationship with gestational age in PPROM

A

latency period prior to onset of labor is inversely related to gestational age in PPROM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

once ROM is confirmed, what does therapeutic course depend upon

A

gestational age, risk of infection, fetal lung maturity. signs of infection/fetal distress-> NEED DELIVERY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CPD

A

when fetal head is too large to pass through maternal pelvis- usually a trial labor is attempted first unless ultrasound and CT have been used to document a fetal head larger than the maternal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

three types of breech

A

frank, incomplete, footling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how to manage breech

A

external version to vertex, C section, less frequently: trial to labor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

complications of L&D of breech delivery

A

cord prolpase and entrapment of fetal head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

vertex malpresentations

A

face, brow, compound, persistent OP. often delivery vaginally but need closer monitoring and sometimes require different maneuvers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

prolonged fetal heart rate decels

A

preuterine, uteroplacental, postplacental. variety of etiologies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

if no resolution of FHR declaration in 4-5 minutes, what to do

A

deliver vaginally or move to OR for c section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

shoulder dystocia complications

A

fetal fractures, nerve damage, hypoxia

24
Q

risk factors for shoulder dystocia

A

fetal macrosomnia, diabetes, previous dystocia, maternal obesity, postterm deliveries, prolonged stage 2 of labor

25
Q

uterine rupture

A

uncommon in pts with no prior uterine scar. 0.5-1% of patients who labor with a prior C section delivery

26
Q

maternal hypotension etiologies

A

regional anesthesia, hemorrhage, vasovagal events, AFE, anaphylaxis

27
Q

first line tx for pts with seizures in pregnancy

A

IV or IM magnesium sulfate

28
Q

oligohydramnios definition

A

AFI

29
Q

polyhydramnios definition

A

AFI>20 on US. associated with diabetes, multiple gestations, hydrops, congenital abnormalities

30
Q

obstetric management of polyhydramnios

A

careful verification of presentation, close observation for cord prolapse

31
Q

rh negative patients who are not sensitized

A

treated with antepartum RhoGAM to prevent sensitization. post partum, they should receive another dose of rhogam if the fetus is rh positive

32
Q

rh negative patients who are sensitized

A

followed closely with serial MCA Doppler velocities and ultrasound. if fetal anemia is suspected, PUBS and IUT can be performed

33
Q

genetics of monozygotic twinning

A

no genetic predisposition, but there is a genetic predispiopriton to dizygotic twinning

34
Q

preeclampsia defiinition

A

HTN>140/90 and proteinuria >300 mg/24 hours

35
Q

preeclampsia definition

A

5-6% of all live births. occurs most commonly in nulliparous women in their third trimester.

36
Q

what characterizes preeclampsia

A

multiorgan vasospasm that can lead to seizure, stroke, renal failure, liver damage, DIC, or fetal demise

37
Q

risk factors for preeclampsia

A

nulliparity, multiple gestation, chronic HTN

38
Q

how to treat preeclampsia

A

ultimately treated with delivery. seizures can be prevented with magnesium sulfate and BPS can be controlled with antihypertensive medications

39
Q

eclampsia

A

grand mal seizure in the preeclamptic patient that cannot be attributed to other causes

40
Q

when can patients present with eclamptic seizures

A

before labor (25%), during labor (50%), after delivery (25%)

41
Q

eclampsia treatment

A

seizure management and prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate, HTN management with hydrazine, and delivery after the patient has been stabilized

42
Q

chronic HTN is preg

A

HTN occurring before conception, before 20 weeks gestations, or persisting more than 6 weeks postpartum. chronic HTN leads to superimposed preeclampsia in 1/3 of patients.

43
Q

tx for chronic HTN in preg

A

nifepidine or labetalol. baseline ECG and 24 hours urine collection for protein and creatinine should be collected

44
Q

GDM occurrence

A

1-12% of pregnant women.

45
Q

screening for GDM

A

all women should be screened at 24-28 weeks. high risk women should be screened at their first prenatal visit

46
Q

fetal complications of GDM

A

macrosomnia, shoulder dystocia, neonatal hypoglycemia

47
Q

pregnancy management of GDM

A

frequent health care visits thorough patient education, ADA diet plan, glucose monitoring, fetal monitoring, and insulin or an oral hypoglycemic agent as indicated.

48
Q

labor in GDM

A

induce at 39-40 weeks. give intrapartum insulin and dextrose to maintain tight control during delivery. C section is offered if fetal weight is over 4500g.

49
Q

maternal complications of diabetes during pregnancy

A

hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, UTI, worsening renal disease, HTN, and retinopathy

50
Q

fetal complications of GDM

A

spontaneous abortion, congenital abnormalities, macrosomnia, IUGR, neonatal hypoglycemia, respiratory distress syndrome, perinatal death

51
Q

hyperemesis gravidum problems

A

though n/v are common in pregnancy, people with HG can’t maintain adequate hydration and nutrition

52
Q

acute/chronic management of hyperemesis gravidum

A

IV hydration, electrolyte repletion, antiemetics. chronic management includes antiemetics and occupational tube feeding or parenteral nutrition

53
Q

seizures in pregnancy

A

increase ins seizure frequency- may be related to increased metabolism of AEDs, decreased pt compliance, lower seizure threshold, and/or hormonal changes in preg. pts should be moniored for monthly AED level

54
Q

congenital abnormlities in mothers with seizures

A

increased baseline for congenital anomalies. risk is increased with the use of AEDs, particularly polytherapy. all pts should have targeted US/fetal survey.

55
Q

cardiac dz in pregnancy

A

changes in cardiac physiology in pregnancy can have a big impact of cardiac dz. common aspects of management are termination of pre, medical stabilizaion, surgical or valvuloplasty repair if needed

56
Q

cardiac pt tx n L&D

A

cardiac pts are given an early epidural, careful fluid monitoring, assisted vaginal delivery to minimize maternal stress and strain. most risky time for cardiac pts is labor, delivery, and puerperium