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BioMed P2 Fall > BioMed Exam 2 (P2 Fall) > Flashcards

BioMed Exam 2 (P2 Fall) Flashcards

1
Q

Which recognizes indirectly, B cells or T cells?

A

T cells

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2
Q

true or false:
Antigens receptors are present on only T cells

A

False
Both B cells and T cells

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3
Q

Pathogen-derived proteins or complex antigens must be degraded into, what, to be recognized by T cells?

A

peptides

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4
Q

Described Antigen Presentation

A

Peptides are assembled into peptide:MHC molecules complexes with the antigen on the cell surface for recognition by T cells

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5
Q

State true or false. All somatic cells, including RBCs express MHC class I molecules.

A

False

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6
Q

State true or false. B cell receptors and T cell receptors both can recognize native protein antigens.

A

False

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7
Q

Which of the following is incorrect with regard to MHC class I molecules?
A. MHC class I is expressed in all somatic cells except RBCs.
B. MHC class I molecules are specialized in recognizing peptides generated from proteasomal enzymes.
C. MHC class I molecule is made up of a transmembrane heavy chain or -chain which is covalently complexed with the small protein 2-microglobulin.
D. B2-microglobulin in the MHC I molecule binds to the antigen peptide.
E. C and D

A

E. C and D

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8
Q

Which of the following are characteristic features of immature dendritic cells?
A. They are highly efficient phagocytic cells.
B. Express cytokine receptors such as for IL-1 receptors and TNF- receptors
C. PRR such as TLR (toll like receptors) are present in the membrane
D. Express modest levels of MHC class I; however, MHC class II levels are very low or absent.
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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9
Q

State true or false. Proteasome enzymes are involved in degrading intracellular antigens such as produced during viral replication, which are then carried to the cell surface by MHC class I molecules for presentation to the cytotoxic T cells.
A. True
B. False

A

true

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10
Q

State True or False. Lysosomal / endosomal enzymes within the cell degrade the extracellular pathogens (taken up by phagocytosis); the peptides generated are then carried to cell surface by MHC class II molecules for presentation to the helper T cells.
A. True
B. False

A

true

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11
Q

Which of the following is true regarding HLAs?
A. HLAs are Human Leukocyte antigens originally discovered in human leukocytes.
B. HLA typing can be done by DNA test/sequencing
C. If there is a miss-match, the T cells of the recipient recognize HLA as foreign and can attack to destroy the grafted tissue leading to tissue rejection.
D. If there is a miss-match, the T cells present in the grafted tissue can attack the recipient’s cells leading to an immune response called graft Vs Host Disease (GVHD)
E. All of the above are correct.

A

E. All of the above are correct

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12
Q

What are the major HLA subclasses?

A

HLA class-I- HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C.
HLA-class II- HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR.

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13
Q

VDJ heavy chain gene rearrangement occurs in which of the following primary lymphoid organs?
A. Bone marrow
B. MALT (Mucosa Associate Lymphoid Tissue)
C. Spleen
D. Thymus

A

A. Bone marrow

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14
Q

State true or false. Naïve B cells express high levels of IgM antibodies.
A. True
B. False

A

true

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15
Q

Examples of T cell independent antigens include which of the following?
A. LPS
B. Polysaccharides
C. Multimeric proteins
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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16
Q

The professional antigen presenting cells include which of the following?
A. Macrophages
B. Dendritic cells
C. B cells
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above

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17
Q

Which of the following phagocytes do not present antigen to helper T cells?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Macrophages
D. Dendritic cells
E. A and B

A

A and B

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18
Q

Select the best answer. B cell and T cell interactions lead to their activation. The signals for B cell activation, proliferation as well as differentiation come from which of the following interactions between B cells and helper T cells?
A. Antigen binding to the antibody on the B cell plasma membrane
B. Interactions between CD40 present in the plasma membrane of the B cells with CD40L present in the helper T cells
C. Interactions between B7.1 present in the plasma membrane of the B cells with CD28 present in the helper T cells
D. Interactions between the MHC class II present in the B cell membrane with T cell receptor present in the Helper T cell membrane
E. A and B

A

A and B

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19
Q

Select the best answer. B cell and T cell interactions lead to their activation. The signals for Helper T cell activation, proliferation and cytokine release comes from interactions from which of the following?
A. Antigen binding to the antibody on the B cell plasma membrane and internalization
B. Interactions between CD40 present in the plasma membrane of the B cells with CD40L present in the helper T cells
C. Interactions between B7.1 present in the plasma membrane of the B cells with CD28 present in the helper T cells
D. Interactions between the MHC class II present in the B cell membrane with T cell receptor present in the Helper T cell membrane
E. C and D
F. A, B, and C

A

C and D

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20
Q

State true or false. All phagocytes are not capable of presenting antigen to helper T cells.
A. True
B. False

A

true
(Phagocytes such as macrophages and dendritic cells are capable of presenting antigen to helper T cells. Interestingly, our body has other phagocytes such as neutrophils and eosinophils, which are not capable of presenting antigen to helper T cells.)

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21
Q

Effector functions of antibodies include which of the following?
A. Complement activation
B. Opsonization
C. Help Natural killer cells through ADCC
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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22
Q

Select the best answer(s). Which of the following is/are true with regard to T-cell independent antigens?
A. Bacterial repetitive polysaccharides, and bacterial lipopolysaccharides are examples of T-cell independent antigens.
B. MHC class II molecules are not involved in eliciting the signals through T-cell independent antigens.
C. Although T-cell independent antigens do not require direct involvement of TH cells, cytokines derived from TH cells are required for efficient B-cell proliferation.
D. A, B and C
E. B and C

A

A, B and C

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23
Q

State true or false. B7.1 is a protein in the B cell plasma membrane. CD28 is a protein in TH cell plasma membrane. Interactions between B cell and TH cell through CD28 and B7.1 provides one of the stimulatory signals for TH cell activation.

A

true

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24
Q

The major immunoglobulin isotype produced in the secondary immune response is_____
A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. B and C

A

IgG

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25
Q

The major isotype produced in the primary immune response is_____
A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. B and C

A

IgM

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26
Q

B cell differentiation events that take place in the germinal center (GC) of the secondary lymphoid follicle include which of the following?
A. Affinity maturation
B. Immunoglobulin class switching
C. Formation of plasma cells from memory B cells
D. A, B and C

A

A, B and C

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27
Q

What is anamnestic response?

A

Rapid antibody response produced in the body upon second exposure to antigen

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28
Q

Artificially acquired passive immunity can be used for which of the following?
A. To prevent infectious disease
B. To limit the duration of certain diseases
C. To block the action of microbial toxins
D. All of the above.

A

All of the above

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29
Q

Blood borne antigens are filtered / removed by which of the following organs?
A. Bone marrow
B. Spleen
C. Thymus
D. Tonsils and adenoids
E. Lymph nodes

A

Spleen

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30
Q

Tissue borne antigens can be removed by which of the following secondary lymphoid organs?
A. Lymph nodes
B. Bone marrow
C. Spleen
D. All of the above

A

Lymph nodes

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31
Q

PD-1 (Programmed cell death protein -1) is a protein present in which of the following cell types?
A. Activated but exhausted helper T cells
B. Circulating monocytes
C. extravasated interstitial neutrophils
D. Tissue macrophages

A

Activated but exhausted helper T cells

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32
Q

Immunity that results from an immune response in an individual upon exposure to an infectious agent through natural route is called_____
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

A

Natural active immunity

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33
Q

Immunity that results from when antibodies from women are transferred to her developing fetus during pregnancy or to an infant during breast feeding is an example of ____________
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

A

Natural passive immunity

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34
Q

Immunity that results when antibodies contained in the serum of other people or animals are given to an individual is called________
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

A

Artificial passive immunity

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35
Q

State true or false. Production of attenuated vaccines involves successfully culturing microbes under conditions which result in gradual accumulations of mutations and make them less able to cause disease.

A

true

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36
Q

Select the best answer(s). Which of the following is/are incorrect with regard to attenuated vaccines?
A. Multiple doses are required to induce long lasting memory
B. Provides greater amounts of antigens as attenuated organisms multiply or replicate.
C. The antigen is exposed to the immune system for longer periods of time.
D. Cannot cause disease in immunosuppressed people.
E. A and D

A

A and D

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37
Q

State true or false. All attenuated vaccines can be stored at room temperature.
A. True
B. False

A

false

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38
Q

State true or false. There should be no problems in giving attenuated vaccines to healthy pregnant women.
A. True
B. False

A

false

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39
Q

State true or false. Inactivated vaccines can cause infections by reverting to dangerous forms.
A. True
B. False

A

false

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40
Q

Which of the following is incorrect with regard to inactivated vaccines?
A. In inactivated vaccines microbes are unable to replicate but retains the immunogenicity of the infectious agent.
B. Inactivated vaccines always contain the fractions of agents (microbes) but not the whole agent.
C. Single dose is sufficient to induce protective immunity.
D. A, B and C
E. B and C

A

B and C

41
Q

Hemophilus influenza type b and Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccines are examples of ________
A. Toxoids
B. Recombinant vaccines
C. Conjugated vaccines
D. Protein subunit vaccines

A

conjugated vaccines

42
Q

What is/are the role of adjuvants (e.g., aluminum potassium sulfate) used in the preparation of inactivated vaccines?
A. Adjuvants are used as additives to increase immunogenicity.
B. Adjuvants are thought to work by providing danger signals to APCs
C. Adjuvants are known to absorb antigens and slowly release them so that an effective immune response is mounted.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

All of the above are correct

43
Q

Which of the following is not correct with regard to attenuated vaccines?
A. Attenuated vaccines are the weakened form of disease-causing microbes which are generally unable to cause disease.
B. Attenuated strains are unable to replicate in the vaccine recipients.
C. Attenuated vaccines if given orally will induce both IgA and IgG response.
D. A and B are incorrect

A

Attenuated strains are unable to replicate in the vaccine recipients.

44
Q

Identify from the following the most important cytokine(s) required for T cell proliferation involved in T cell proliferation and differentiation?
A. IL-2
B. Erythropoietin
C. GMCSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor)
D. GCSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor)
E. C and D

A

IL-2

45
Q

Which of the following are inactivated vaccines?
A. Toxoids
B. aP (acellular pertussis)
C. VLP (viral like particles)
D. Polysaccharide vaccines
E. All of the above

A

all of the above

46
Q

State true or false. Attenuated vaccines do not require adjuvants to elicit an immune response.

A

true

47
Q

State true or false. Attenuated vaccine requires refrigeration to keep them stable.

A

true

48
Q

State true or false. Risk of mutation to virulence is very low in attenuated vaccines.

A

true

49
Q
  1. State true or false. There is no risk of mutation to virulence in inactivated vaccines.
A

true

50
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Sabin polio vaccine?
A. It is an attenuated vaccine and is orally administered.
B. Sabin vaccine gives an IgA and IgG response.
C. When Sabin vaccine is given, it was observed that 1 in 2.4 million developed poliomyelitis.
D. In the US, vaccination with Sabin vaccine (OPV=Oral polio vaccine) is discontinued; since the year 2000, CDC recommends vaccinating children only with inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
E. All of them are true.

A

All of them are true

51
Q
  1. Which of the following cytokines can cause up-regulation of both class I and class II MHC molecules in dendritic cells?
    A. IFN-y
    B. IL-6
    C. IL-4
    D. IL-5
A

A. IFN-y

52
Q

B cell activation and differentiation to produce plasma and memory cells occurs in which of the following organs?
A. Spleen
B. Lymph node
C. Bone marrow
D. All the above (A, B and C)
E. A and B

A

A and B

53
Q

State true or false. Polio is completely eradicated in all countries of the world.
A. True
B. False

A

false

54
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding helper T cells?
A. B7.1 co-stimulatory protein is present in helper T cells.
B. Helper T cells contain CD4 protein as a unique marker.
C. Helper T cells act as middleman in the immune response by secreting cytokines which activate many other cell types such as B cells, macrophages and T cells.
D. Helper T cells recognize antigens presented by class II MHC molecules.

A

B7.1 co-stimulatory protein is present in helper T cells.

55
Q

The effector functions of antibodies include which of the following?
A. Compliment activation
B. Opsonization of pathogens
C. Activation of natural killer cells to induce cell mediated cytotoxicity
D. A, B and C
E. A and B

A

A, B and C

56
Q

Which of the immunoglobulin classes can cross placenta?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
E. IgA

A

IgG

57
Q

Transfer of IgG from mother to the fetus via placenta is an example of________
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Both A and B

A

Passive Immunity

58
Q

Transfer of IgA through milk from mother to the baby is an example of________
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Both And B

A

passive immunity

59
Q

Which of the following is a receptor for HIV?
A. CD4 protein in CD4 positive T cells
B. T-cell receptor in cytotoxic T cells
C. T-cell receptor in helper T cells
D. PD-1 protein in helper T cells

A

CD4 protein in CD4 positive T cells

60
Q

An anaphylatoxin can generate which of the following hypersensitivity reactions?
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

61
Q

Which of the following is/are autoimmune reactions?
A. SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus)
B. RA (Rheumatoid Arthritis)
C. MS (Multiple Sclerosis)
D. Type I diabetes
E. All of the above

A

all of the above

62
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia of Bruton is an example of __________
A. Congenital immunodeficiency
B. Acquired immunodeficiency
C. Brain disorder
D. Type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

Congenital immunodeficiency

63
Q

Digeorge’s syndrome is an example of ______________
A. Congenital immunodeficiency
B. Acquired immunodeficiency
C. Brain disorder
D. Type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

Congenital immunodeficiency

64
Q

What is seroconversion?

A

Seroconversion refers to the development of antibodies to HIV and usually takes place between 6 weeks and 3 months after an infection has occurred

65
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis and immunethrombocytopenia are examples of _________
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

66
Q

IgE mediated allergic reaction in response to penicillin injection is an example of__________
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

67
Q

Examples of type III hypersensitivity reaction include which of the following?
A. SLE
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Serum sickness
D. All of the above

A

all of the above

68
Q

Tuberculin reaction, contact dermatitis and transplant rejections are examplers of _______
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

69
Q

What are the examples of autoimmune disorders?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Multiple Sclerosis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Psoriasis
Type I diabetes
Graves’ disease
Hashimoto’s disease
Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

70
Q

What is allotransplantation?

A

Transplantation of cells, tissues and organs from a genetically non-identical donor.

71
Q

What is autologous tissue transplantation?

A

Transplantation of organs and tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual.

72
Q

What are the drugs that are used for immune suppression following tissue transplantation?

A

Methotrexate, Azathioprine, corticosteroids, cyclosporine A, Tacrolimus

73
Q

Mechanisms of actions of cyclosporins include which of the following?
A. Inhibiting the production of IL-2 from helper T cells
B. Increasing the production of IL-2 from helper T cells
C. Directly interfering with DNA replication enzymes in bone marrow stem cells.
D. Increasing the phagocytic activity of dendritic cells

A

Inhibiting the production of IL-2 from helper T cells

74
Q

Name one example of T-cell independent antigens.

A

Lipopolysaccharide

75
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

Graft from a different species such as when an animal tissue is grafted to help humans.

76
Q

Name two proteins expressed in helper T cells that are involved in the negative regulation of immune responses.

A

PD-1 (programmed death-1) and CTLA-4 (cytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4).

77
Q

What is the major difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies?

A

Monoclonal antibodies are mono-specific antibodies secreted by B cells; originally these clones come from a unique parent cell. Monoclonal antibodies have monovalent affinity and bind to the same epitope.
In contrast, polyclonal antibodies come from several different B cell lineage. Polyclonal antibodies have polyvalent affinity and bind to different epitopes.

78
Q

Name the compound that is used to fuse B cells and myeloma cells to produce a hybridomal cell that can produce monoclonal antibodies.

A

Polyethylene glycol (PEG).

79
Q

Explain the importance of humanizing mouse monoclonal antibodies for use in the treatment of human patients.

A

The monoclonal antibodies produced using mouse B cells cannot be directly used to treat human diseases. The reason is that: although structurally similar, mouse antibodies when injected into humans can result in their rapid removal from the blood and may elicit inflammatory reactions and production of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome completely of the problem of side effects observed in mouse monoclonal antibodies, other methods has been developed which uses transgenic mice and phage display techniques to generate a humanized monoclonal antibody. The protein sequence of a humanized antibody is essentially identical to that of human variant, these are called fully humanized monoclonal antibodies.

80
Q

What are chimeric antibodies?

A

Chimeric antibodies contain human constant domains and mouse variable domains produced through cell culture which yield partially mouse, partially human monoclonal antibodies. These monoclonal antibodies are called chimeric monoclonal antibodies, and these have lesser side effects.

81
Q

State true or false. Herceptin (Trastuzumab) used in breast cancer treatment blocks HER2 and it is a fully humanized antibody.

A

true

82
Q

State true or false. Cetuximab used in the treatment of metastatic colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer, blocks the functions of HER1 (EGFR). It is a chimeric monoclonal antibody.

A

true

83
Q

State true or false. Bevacizumab used in anti-angiogenic cancer therapy inhibits VEGF and arrests angiogenesis. It is a fully humanized antibody.

A

true

84
Q

State true or false. Baciliximab used in the treatment of acute kidney transplant rejection is anti-inflammatory and inhibits IL-2 action in activated T cells. It is a chimeric monoclonal antibody that blocks IL-2 receptor functions.

A

true

85
Q

GVHD is an example of______
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

86
Q

Poison IV rashes are an example of______
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

87
Q

Resistance to HIV infection observed in some individuals is due to mutation in which of the following proteins?
A. CCR-5 (C-C chemokine receptor-5)
B. CTLA-4
C. PD-1
D. All of the above

A

CCR-5 (C-C chemokine receptor-5)

88
Q

Explain the mechanism of action of Ipilimumab.

A

Ipilimumab neutralizes the negative regulation on T cells by CTLA-4 and enhances the capacity of T cells to secrete cytokines and this favors destruction of tumor cells by cytotoxic T cells.

89
Q

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies targets CTLA-4?
A. Ipilimumab
B. Nivolumab
C. Pembrolizumab
D. All of the above

A

Ipilimumab

90
Q

Nivolumab and Pembrolizumab targets which of the following protein functions?
A. PD-1
B. CTLA-4
C. HER2
D. IL-2

A

PD-1

91
Q

State true or false. Tumor cells can express MHC class II molecules

A

true

92
Q

What are the advantageous and disadvantages of attenuated and inactivated vaccines?

A

Advantageous of attenuated vaccines: Single dose is sufficient to induce long lasting immunity. Provides greater amount of antigen as organisms multiply or replicate. Longer exposure of immune system to antigen.
Disadvantageous of attenuated vaccines: Potential to cause disease in immunosuppressed people. Avoid giving to pregnant women because microbes can cross placenta and can cause damage / disease in fetus. Need refrigeration to keep them active.
Advantageous of inactivated vaccines: The advantageous is that they cannot cause infections or revert to dangerous forms.
Disadvantageous of inactivated vaccines: As they do not replicate, the magnitude of immune response is limited. Therefore, booster shots are required. They have to be administered several times to induce protective immunity.

93
Q

State true or false: Covid-19 vaccines developed by Pfizer and Moderna are classified as RNA vaccines.

A

true

94
Q

What is cVDPV (circulating Vaccine-Derived Polio Virus)?

A

cVDPV is a strain of reverted form of the weakened form of the poliovirus that was initially included in the oral polio vaccine (OPV). The weakened form of the virus changed over time and reverted to more like the wild or naturally occurring virus. It can cause poliomyelitis /paralysis.

95
Q

What is the difference between WPV and cVDPV?

A

WPV=Wild-type Polio Virus
cVDPV=circulating Vaccine-Derived Polio Virus

96
Q

Why is newer vaccination strategy required?

A

Since the development of Smallpox vaccines, many inactivated or attenuated vaccines have been developed. They have decreased the morbidity and mortality caused by dangerous diseases around the world. Despite these achievements there are limitations and potential problems associated with conventional methods. Although conventional vaccines are crucial for preventing the spread of numerous highly infectious diseases, the manufacturing of these vaccines often requires that researchers handle live pathogens.

Attenuated vaccines, although the risk to revert to full virulence is low, adaptation of this method is unfavorable for highly pathogenic viruses.
Inactivated vaccines, have issues related to the methods of preparation and presentation, the immune response is sometimes limited, and requires adjuvants and immunostimulants to enhance the response.
Attenuated vaccines and Inactivated vaccines may face challenge of production as it requires high biosafety levels and dedicated laboratories for cultivation. Such vaccine preparations may have undesired foreign materials such as culture medium, eggs, tissue culture, which may have an impact on immunogenicity or be potentially allergic.

The constant emergence of novel pathogens, as well as the re-emergence of known pathogens requires investigators to develop new vaccines which allows for the rapid development of safe and effective vaccines. Scientists have found that nucleic acid vaccines (DNA and RNA vaccines) are becoming a robust and versatile technical strategy for combating infectious diseases and cancers.

97
Q

Approximately, how many people have died in the US due to covid 19 (2019-2022).

A

1 million

98
Q

The receptor for SARS CoV-2 virus is__________

A

ACE2 (Angiotensin converting Enzyme-2).

BioMed P2 Fall (1 decks)

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