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Review For Board Exam > Bacteriology Pre-Test > Flashcards

Bacteriology Pre-Test Flashcards

1
Q

The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires
that the skin be cleansed with:

a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution

b. 70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor

c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol

d. 95% alcohol only

A

70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor

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2
Q

When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then
iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the
iodine (or iodophor) should remain intact on
the skin for at least:

a. 10 sec
b. 30 sec
c. 60 sec
d. 5 min

A

60 sec

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3
Q

What is the purpose of adding 0.025% - 0.050% sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures?

a. Inhibits phagocytosis and complement
b. Promotes formation of a blood clot
c. Enhances growth of anaerobes
d. Functions as a preservative

A

Inhibits phagocytosis and complement

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4
Q

Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen:

a. MacConkey agar and thioglycolate media

b. TCBS and alkaline peptone water

c. Blood agar and selenite F broth

d. Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar

A

TCBS and alkaline peptone water

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5
Q

According to CLSI, _____________ is the recommended skin disinfectant for blood culture, for infants two months and older, and patients with iodine sensitivity.

a. Zephiran chloride
b. Iodophor
c. Chlorhexidine gluconate
d. Benzalkonium chloride solution

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate

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6
Q

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:

a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. Yersinia intermedia
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium difficile

A

Clostridium difficile

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7
Q

Prereduced and Vitamin K1 supplemented blood agar plates are recommended isolation media for:

a. Mycobacterium marinum and M. avium
b. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium spp.
c. Proteus spp.
d. Enterococcus spp.

A

Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium spp.

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8
Q

Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp.?

a. Inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells

b. Plate onto blood and chocolate agar

c. Inoculate into thioglycolate broth

d. Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 24 hours

A

Inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells

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9
Q

At which pH does the methyl red (MR) test become positive?

a. 7.0
b. 6.0
c. 6.5
d. 4.5

A

4.5

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10
Q

Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?

a. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
b. MR
c. Bromcresol purple
d. Cytochrome oxidase

A

p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

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11
Q

Which genera of Enterobacteriacea are usually nonmotile at 36 oC?

a. Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia

b. Escherichia, Edwardsiella and Enterobacter

d. Proteus, Providencia and Salmonella

e. Serratia, Morganella and Hafnia

A

Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia

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12
Q

A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea, and infection with Vibrio cholerae is suspected. Select the bast media for recovery and identification of this organism.

a. MaConkey agar

b. Blood Agar

c. TCBS agar

d. Xylose lysine desoxycholate agar

A

TCBS agar

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13
Q

What atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective agar at 35-37C and 42C?

a. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2

b. 10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2

c. 20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2

d. 20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2

A

5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2

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14
Q

Which medium should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?

a. Chocolate agar
b. Blood agar
c. MacConkey agar
d. Bordet-Gengou agar

A

Bordet-Gengou agar

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15
Q

Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus species?

a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. intermedius
d. S. saprophyticus

A

S. epidermidis

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16
Q

S. saprophyticus is best differentiated from S. epidermidis by susceptibility to:

a. 5 ug lysostaphin
b. 5 ug novobiocin
c. 10 units penicillin
d. 0.04 units of bacitracin

A

5 ug novobiocin

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17
Q

The bile solubility test causes lysis of:

a. Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate

b. Streptpcoccus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate

c. Group A streptococci in broth culture

d. Group B streptococci in broth culture

A

Streptpcoccus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate

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18
Q

Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?

a. Optochin disk test
b. Bacitracin disk test
c. CAMP test
d. Bile esculin test

A

Optochin disk test

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19
Q

The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus bovis
c. Streptococcus equines
d. Grp D streptococci (enterococci)

A

Grp D streptococci (enterococci)

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20
Q

The Quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus spp.?

a. S. pyogenes
b. S. agalactiae
c. S. sanguinis
d. S. pneumoniae

A

S. pneumoniae

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21
Q

Which of the following organisms is the cause of Lyme disease?

a. Treponema pallidum
b. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Babesia microti
d. Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

22
Q

Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

23
Q

Which organism typically produces “fried-egg” colonies on agar within 1-5 days of culture from a genital specimen?

a. Mycoplasma hominis
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Leptospira interrogans
d. Treponema pallidum

A

Mycoplasma hominis

24
Q

A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes and metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:

a. Corynebacterium spp.
b. Nocardia spp.
c. Listeria spp.
d. Gardnerella spp.

A

Corynebacterium spp.

25
Q

Which of the following is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gardnerella vaginalis is suspected in a
patient with vaginosis?

a. 10% KOH
b. 3% H2O2
c. 30% H2O2
d. All of these

A

10% KOH

26
Q

A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of beta-hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?

a. Bacteroides ureolyticus
b. Bacteroides fragilis
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium difficile

A

Clostridium perfringens

27
Q

Which spore type and location is found on C. tetani?

a. Round, terminal spores
b. Round, subterminal
c. Ovoid, subterminal spores
d. Oval, terminal spores

A

Round, terminal spores

28
Q

Which Clostridium spp. is most often recovered from a wound infection with gas gangrene?

a. C. sporogenes
b. C. sordellii
c. C. novyi
d. C. perfringens

A

C. perfringens

29
Q

A Gram stain smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old male with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments). Colonies on blood agar resembled “molar teeth” in formation. The most likely organism is:

a. Actinomyces israelii C.
b. Propionibacterium acnes
c. Streptococcus intermedius
d. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

A

Actinomyces israelii C.

30
Q

Mycobacteria stained with Ziehl-neelsen or Kinyuon methods using a methylene blue counterstain, are seen microscopically as:

a. Bright red rods against a blue background

b. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background

c. Orange-red rods against a black background

d. Bright blue rods against a pink background

A

Bright red rods against a blue background

31
Q

Which tests are most appropriate to differentiate between Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Pseudomonas putida?

a. Oxidase, motility, pyoverdin

b. Oxidase, motility, lactose

c. Oxidase, ONPG, DNase

d. Mannitol, nitrate reduction, growth at 42°C

A

Mannitol, nitrate reduction, growth at 42°C

32
Q

Which test group best differentiates Acinetobacter baumannii from P. aeruginosa?

a. Oxidase, motility, NO3 reduction

b. MacConkey growth, 37°C growth, catalase

c. Blood agar growth, oxidase, catalase

d. Oxidase, TSI, MacConkey growth

A

Oxidase, motility, NO3 reduction

33
Q

Chinese letter appearance

a. Listeria spp.
b. Corynebacterium spp.
c. Enterobacteriaceae spp.
d. Pseudomonas spp.

A

Corynebacterium spp.

34
Q

Tumbling motility

a. L. monocytogenes
b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c. Clostridium spp.
d. Enterobacteriaceae spp.

A

L. monocytogenes

35
Q

The test used most often to separate the Micrococcaceae family from the Streptococcaceae family is:

a. Bacitracin
b. Catalase
c. Hemolysis pattern
d. All of these options

A

Catalase

36
Q

Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)?

a. Fermentation of glucose (OF tube)
b. Catalase test
c. Gram stain
d. All of these options

A

Fermentation of glucose (OF tube)

37
Q

Which of the following enzymes contribute to the virulence of S. aureus?

a. Urease and lecithinase

b. Hyaluronidase and β-lactamase

c. Lecithinase and catalase

d. Cytochrome oxidase

A

Hyaluronidase and β-lactamase

38
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is attributed to infection with:

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus hominis
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

Staphylococcus aureus

39
Q

Bacitracin A disks (0.04 unit) are used for the presumptive identification of which group of
β-hemolytic streptococci

a. Group A
b. Group B
c. Group C
d. Group F

A

Group A

40
Q

The bile solubility test causes the lysis of:

a. Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate

c. Group A streptococci in broth culture

d. Group B streptococci in broth culture

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate

41
Q

Large gram-positive spore-forming rods growing on blood agar as large, raised, β-hemolytic colonies that spread and appear as frosted green-gray glass are most likely:

a. Pseudomonas spp.
b. Bacillus spp.
c. Corynebacterium spp.
d. Listeria spp.

A

Bacillus spp.

42
Q

Which is the specimen of choice for proof of food poisoning by Bacillus cereus?

a. Sputum
b. Blood
c. Stool
d. Food

A

Food

43
Q

A suspected Bacillus anthracis culture obtained from a wound specimen produced colonies that
had many outgrowths (Medusa-head appearance), but were not β-hemolytic on sheep blood agar. Which test should be performed next?

a. Penicillin (10-unit) susceptibility test
b. Lecithinase test
c. Glucose test
d. Motility test

A

Penicillin (10-unit) susceptibility test

44
Q

Which of the following organisms is the cause of Lyme disease?

a. Treponema pallidum
b. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Babesia microti
d. Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

45
Q

The diagnostic method most commonly used for the identification of Lyme disease is:

a. Serology
b. Culture
c. Gram stain
d. Acid-fast stain

A

Serology

46
Q

Anaerobic bacteria are routinely isolated from all of the following types of infections except:

a. Lung abscesses
b. Brain abscesses
c. Dental infections
d. Urinary tract infections

A

Urinary tract infections

47
Q

All of the following genera are anaerobic cocci that stain gram positive except:

a. Peptococcus spp.
b. Peptostreptococcus spp.
c. Streptococcus spp.
d. Veillonella spp.

A

Veillonella spp.

48
Q

Which Clostridium species is most often recovered from a wound infection with gas gangrene?

a. C. sporogenes
b. Clostridium sordellii
c. C. novyi
d. C. perfringens

A

C. perfringens

49
Q

Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans, especially in regions where dairy farming is prevalent?

a. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

b. Mycobacterium kansasii

c. Mycobacterium marinum

d. Mycobacterium bovis

A

Mycobacterium bovis

50
Q

The best specimen for recovery of the mycobacteria from a sputum sample is:

a. First morning specimen
b. 10-hour evening specimen
c. 12-hour pooled specimen
d. 24-hour pooled specimen

A

First morning specimen

Review For Board Exam (10 decks)

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