Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

What year did SEMS regulation take effect in California?

A

1994

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2
Q

SEMS is a ________ system.

A

Management

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3
Q

SEMS provides for a ______ level emergency response organization.

A

5

Field Response
Local Govt
Operational Area
Regional
State
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4
Q

By _______ law all agencies must use SEMS when responding to emergencies involving multiple agencies.

A

State

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5
Q

Unity of Command means?

A

Every individual has a designated supervisor (one)

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6
Q

According to SEMS, Standard Emergency Management System, the standard span of control is how many?

A

3 to 7

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7
Q

According to SEMS, Operational Periods can be of various lengths, although usually not over ______ hours.

A

24

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8
Q

History of SEMS, a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) zone above an incident limits aircraft to 5 nautical mile radius and ______ feet in altitude.

A

2,000

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9
Q

History of SEMS is due to overload in what fire?

A

East Bay

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10
Q

All ______ should carry a printed copy of TB 102 (glucometer) for reference.

A

ALS Apparatus

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11
Q

The Glucometer case will “glow in the dark” when exposed to light for how many minutes?

A

15

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12
Q

The unique _______ design of the Glucometer Test Strip is what allows testing of small amounts of blood.

A

Biosensor

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13
Q

The glucometer calibration must have the identical ____ digit number as the test strip lot number.

A

5

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14
Q

The glucometer lighted feature will

Auto turn off after approx. how many seconds?

A

40

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15
Q

The Hydro Foam Nozzle and Jet Controller was distributed to all what?

A

200 series engines

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16
Q

What size is the hydro foam jet ratio controller (JRC)?

A

1 1/2

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17
Q

When using class B Foam, what percentage of stream flow should land on Flammable liquid?

A

80%

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18
Q

How many feet will the Hydro Foam nozzle reach?

A

180

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19
Q

What % of Class B Foam concentrate solution should be used with the Hydro Foam Nozzle?

A

3%

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20
Q

The Hydro Foam System produces high quality foam that expands to an optimum range of?

A

3:1 to 6:1

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21
Q

When using the Hydro Foam nozzle, what is the friction loss for JRC?

A

50 psi

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22
Q

The 1 1/2 Williams in line foam educator has foam % ranges of?

A

.5 to 6

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23
Q

The 1 1/2 Williams in line eductor is limited to how many gpm?

A

125

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24
Q

The JRC has how many ports?

A

3

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25
Q

When operating the Tender with Class A foam _____ to ____% is considered dry foam.

A

.3 to 6

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26
Q

To make the bubble cup an aspirating nozzle slide the gray sleeve in which direction?

A

Forward

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27
Q

During USAR incident, a rescue harness is

A

Recommended

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28
Q

Who controls the entry points at a USAR incident?

A

Rescue Team Leader

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29
Q

Who provides the rope rescue system and anchors?

A

Technical Support Team

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30
Q

_____ or more members are used for rigging, cutting, or ventilation.

A

2

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31
Q

The Urban Search and Rescue Standard of Operations and Training is NFPA Standard ______.

A

1670

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32
Q

When assigned to a USAR type incident, who will perform the duties of perimeter control?

A

Non USAR company

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33
Q

Nearly what percentage of all confined space deaths are potential rescuers secondary entries?

A

60%

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34
Q

The SAR (Supplied Air Respirator) has how many feet of breathing line hose for rescuers?

A

300

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35
Q

Who will assist the IC with an Operational Plan at a USAR event?

A

The USAR Task Force Captain 2 and USAR officer

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36
Q

During a USAR incident, who is responsible for “Entry Permit”

A

Rescue Group Sup

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37
Q

The Atmospheric Monitor is responsible for determination of atmospheric conditions. This person must be trained to the Confined Space Rescue Operations Level for _____________.

A

“Permit required”

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38
Q

The AO assigned to USAR 88 will normally fill what role?

A

TechnicL Safety Officer

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39
Q

Confined rescues require rescuers with special qualifications mandated by who?

A

State

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40
Q

During a confined space incident, use what type of blowers?

A

Electric

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41
Q

During a USAR confined space how should you spot apparatus?

A

Not to cause vibrations

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42
Q

Permits are normally available from plant managers and safety engineers. They can also be found in the form of Site Records or _______.

A

MSDS

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43
Q

Using an SCBA on a USAR incident has how many limiting factors?

A

3

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44
Q

The LL in LLCCESS stands for what?

A

Lookout and Location

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45
Q

There are _____ additional direct causes of Firefighter injury or death added to LCES

A

3 (Location, Condition, Safety Equip.)

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46
Q

Chief Gleason of the _______ developed LCES.

A

US Forestry Dept

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47
Q

When firefighters are retreating they should do what?

A

pull slack out of hose

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48
Q

The location that you select to initiate operations as a first arriving company on scene will become a _______ for operations for the balance of the assignment

A

Focal point

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49
Q

During an emergency incident, in many cases it will be the changes that ______ occur that should drive the risk analysis of the crews.

A

Do not

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50
Q

Prior to initiating interior operations, establish the best location for access. More importantly, the best location with a sufficient area for _______.

A

Exiting

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51
Q

According to TB 106, in an operational retreat sounding air horn for _____ seconds followed by ______ seconds of silence and repeated 3 times for a total of ______ seconds indicates that all companies shall retreat to safe area

A

10, 10, 50

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52
Q

How many US companies have FDA approval for making Auto Injectors

A

1

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53
Q

Mark 1 Auto Injectors contains 2 mg Atropine and 600 mg 2-Pam Chloride. What color is the 2-Pam Chloride cap?

A

Gray

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54
Q

What color is the Atropine Cap on Mark 1 Auto Injectors?

A

Yellow

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55
Q

When using the Mark 1 Auto Injectors to stop the effects of nerve agents, what agent is given first?

A

2 mg Atropine

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56
Q

The nervous system controls body functions through the use of ______ which acts as instructions to nerves, muscles and glands

A

Chemicals

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57
Q

When a member is exposed to a nerve agent, but symptoms are mild, you should?

A

Decontaminate and Observe

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58
Q

_____ to _____ minutes after I tea muscular injections with the Mark 1, mild to moderate pain may be experienced.

A

40 to 60

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59
Q

Can a paramedic administer the Mark 1 to a civilian?

A

Yes, an EMT can never.

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60
Q

Once a Mark 1 is administered, victims must be placed under observation for how long?

A

24 hours

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61
Q

Use of the Mark 1 may cause what symptoms?

A
Nausea
Hyperventilation
Increased BP
Blurred Vision
Drowsiness
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62
Q

The Mark 1 has a shelf life of how many years?

A

5

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63
Q

Special Duty personnel shall store their Mark 1 Injector where?

A

Glove box or Trauma Box

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64
Q

Replacement of the Mark 1 requires an F-80 and F-225 to?

A

ESB

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65
Q

When injecting, hold the Mark 1 firmly in place for how many seconds before removing and massaging the area?

A

10

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66
Q

2 PAM CI is an oxide drug that acts to restore normal functions at the nerve endings by removing the __________ nerve agent.

A

Organophosphate

67
Q

Since both Atropine and 2PAM CI are relatively ________ acting, repeated doses ________ may be needed, especially if there is no evidence of continuing absorption.

A

Short, may be

68
Q

The nasal cannula is designated to provide a _________ concentration of O2 and is the most appropriate initial device for COPD.

A

Lower

69
Q

The main goal of oxygen therapy are to relieve what?

A

Hypoxemia

70
Q

Non rebreather oxygen mask will provide what percentage of O2?

A

100

71
Q

Inflate the reservoir bag on a NRB by blocking off the _______ valve between the mask and reservoir bag.

A

One way

72
Q

Set a nasal cannula to no more than how many LPM?

A

6

73
Q

The Elevator Rescue Kit is carried on all what?

A

Truck Companies

74
Q

The skyline ERK has how many components?

A

4

75
Q

When using the Elevator Rescue Paddle insert the paddle through the center door opening _______ inches from the bottom?

A

6 and 12

76
Q

When using the elevator paddle push past the hoist way door and do what?

A

Turn 90 degrees

77
Q

Area near floor threshold where the inner car will open or close the outer hoist way door best describes what?

A

Floor zone

78
Q

The Skyline Poling tool is how long?

A

4’

79
Q

The Skyline Poling Tool Extensions are how long?

A

4 and 8 feet

80
Q

The ERK step stool can hold how many pounds?

A

300

81
Q

The pipe wrench and tongue and groove pliers are to be used in conjunction with what other tool in the Elevator Equipment Room?

A

Claw tool (hayward)

82
Q

The Alameda Corridor track # is what?

A

Center or #2 track

83
Q

Alameda Corridor access ladders are located every how many feet?

A

1000 (2 green bots dots indicate)

84
Q

How many miles is the Alameda Corridor?

A

20

85
Q

The Alameda Corridor project was built to consolidate the operations of how many freight railroads?

A

2

86
Q

Alameda Corridor will connect busiest container ports with transcontinental rail yards ______ of downtown LA

A

East

87
Q

The Alameda Corridor has 2 pumping stations to control water run off. How wide is the channel?

A

4 feet

88
Q

When the Alameda Corridor access ladders are lowered, trains slow to what MPH?

A

10

89
Q

The Alameda Corridor has 2 pumping stations. What are they used for?

A

Control water run off

90
Q

Does Alameda have a camera system?

A

Yes a security camera system.

91
Q

Alameda Corridor access ladders are located every 1000 feet. How many are there?

A

46

92
Q

Consider placing companies ______ to _____ mile(s) away on both sides of the Alameda incident to act as scouts to warn IC of oncoming trains.

A

1 1/2 to 2

93
Q

Alameda Corridor # symbol indicates what?

A

Emergency Ladder number

94
Q

Trains can take over how long to stop?

A

1 mile

95
Q

Alameda Corridor access ladders are identified how?

A

2 green botz dots

96
Q

______ million containers are shipped annually from Long Beach and San Pedro ports.

A

25

97
Q

The average speed of trains in Alameda Corridor is?

A

40 mph

98
Q

How are the issues keys engraved for Alameda Corridor?

A

ACTA

99
Q

Dry standpipe connections located every how many feet in Alameda Corridor?

A

500–the sign will also have mile marker and cross street

100
Q

Paramedic Disaster Cache Boxes contain ____ Mark 1s and ____ Amyl Nitrite

A

30 and 36

101
Q

Amyl Nitrite is used to treat ______ exposure.

A

Cyanide Compounds

102
Q

How is the metro rail red line left tunnel designated?

A

Alignment left

103
Q

A metro rail red line train can hold up to how many passengers in a “crush load”?

A

220

104
Q

The metro rail red line maximum speed is how many mph?

A

70

105
Q

Metro rail red line cross passengers are usually staggered every ____ feet throughout the tunnel.

A

750

106
Q

Radio comms inside the metro rail is in what mode?

A

Repeat

107
Q

The metro rail red line has how many stations?

A

16

108
Q

The incoming power that supplies the metro rail red line is?

A

34,500 v

109
Q

The red line emergency trio stations are indicated by what?

A

Blue light

110
Q

Metro rail red line stations are over how many feet?

A

450

111
Q

Metro rail red train stations are designed to accommodate how many cars?

A

6

112
Q

The metro rail red line sprinkler deluge system is found where?

A

Train station area

113
Q

The metro rail ventilation system uses 200 hp fans that deliver how many cfm?

A

150,000

114
Q

Each metro rail red line car has two extinguishers rated at what?

A

10A60BC

115
Q

The Metro Rail EMP is found at what level?

A

Mezzanine

116
Q

How many feet are metro rail red line trains?

A

75

117
Q

The metro rail red line first opened when?

A

1993

118
Q

The metro rail red line ancillary area used for what purpose?

A

Non public

119
Q

A metro rail red line has a fleet of how many cars?

A

104

120
Q

The metro rail EMP Mezzanine is usually located ____below ground.

A

First

121
Q

The metro rail red line doors can be opened by pulling downward on the red ball which is located above the set of doors. Wait _____ seconds for separation.

A

5

122
Q

The Conterra airway bag is fluid proof and divided into how many sections?

A

3

123
Q

Which is the only approved cleaning method for airway bag?

A

10% bleach and mild detergent

124
Q

The tranzport hood comes in how many sizes?

A

1

125
Q

If tranzport good is applied who must be notified?

A

Law enforcement and EMS captain

126
Q

What are contraindications for Tranzaport Hood?

A

Vomiting, compromised airway, dyspneic, nose bleed

127
Q

On the Tranzport Hood, the upper elastic band goes above what?

A

The nose

128
Q
All of the following are types of Radio Frequency Radiation Hazards except?
A) nuclear
B) RF
C) TOT
D) solar
A

C) TOT

129
Q

RF radiation can be harmful in ____dose intervals.

A

High

130
Q

When operating handie talkies, antenna tips should be at least how far from the eye?

A

6 inches

131
Q

Cellular antenna poses little exposure to members because they are usually elevated approx how many feet above ground?

A

60

132
Q

The most common place for radar antennas are where?

A

Airport and military sites

133
Q

Over exposure to RF energy in rare cases can do what to you?

A

Cook you

134
Q

When exposed to RF energy, only become exposed as long as it takes to walk by and walk by as _____ as possible

A

Far

135
Q

There are how many types of dangerous antennas?

A

6

136
Q

There are how many types of Radar antennas?

A

2 (type 1 and 2)

137
Q

Satellite dishes are fairly safe because?

A

Are elevated and send their signal at a high angle.

138
Q

For safety, members operating mobile radios or MDCs should ensure that the _____ is clear before transmitting or updating MDC.

A

Roof

139
Q

How many different size eval-u splints does lafd use?

A

3

140
Q

CMS should be assessed prior to evac-u splint application and reassessed every how many minutes?

A

15

141
Q

When cleaning the Evac-u splint clean with what?

A

1% bleach solution (only 1% in our library for cleaning)

142
Q

One of the advantages of using the evac-u splint is that it reduces __________ syndrome.

A

Compartment

143
Q

Cleaning is the best visual and _______ inspection.

A

Tactile

144
Q

Company Commanders should monitor apparatus cleaning operations. Who should provide CAV time?

A

BC and Company Commander

145
Q

What document shall be completed every time after cleaning and inspecting the undercarriage? Also applies to pump test.

A

F-978A, 978B

146
Q

The “C” in COLA stands for what?

A

Cut in

147
Q

If an apparatus requires transmission fluid, who shall add?

A

Shops

148
Q

Where will you find the clarifier location in TB 127?

A

Part 6

149
Q

When lubing with power equipment, max pressure on air compressor is?

A

60 psi

150
Q

What type of engine oil does lafd use?

A

15-40w

151
Q

Black pearl lube shall be used for what?

A

Suspension

152
Q

Which document shall be completed after cleaning but BEFORE inspecting undercarriage?

A

F-978A

153
Q

Most LAFD apparatus air pressure cut in at what psi?

A

100

154
Q

What book shall the F-979 be retained in?

A

Book 55

155
Q

When using MTA yard what is the max mph when driving?

A

8 mph

156
Q

What psi shall air brake pressure warning activate at?

A

55 to 75

157
Q

When conducting air leakage rate test, apply steady brake pressure for how long?

A

1 minute

158
Q

Under how many conditions shall aportes be delivered to S and M?

A

5 (scheduled repair, non scheduled repair, pump or ladder test, body shop repair, undercarriage/oil change)

159
Q

Body armor purchase in 2005 shall be stored how?

A

Rolled and in carrying case

160
Q

When should you replace firefighting hood?

A

Even if small hole in one layer

161
Q

What should you never spray with pressure washer when cleaning?

A

Rubber boots

162
Q

Apparatus inspection is divided into how many sections?

A

4 (quiz drivers, thank drivers for work, inspect, paperwork)

163
Q

The Ferno stair chair has two quick release restraints to hold patient. How long are they?

A

7 feet each

164
Q

The Ferno Stair Chair has a maximum load capacity of how many pounds?

A

350