Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing LAB 2 > Animal Nursing 2 > Flashcards

Animal Nursing 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

The dominant hand scrubs or gets the sponge from the bowl?

A

scrubs, other gets sponge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Use the scrubbing agent then the rinising agent ___ times for a total of ___ mins of contact time

A

3x, 5mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This is healing by which intention: Without infection or excessive granulation tissue

A

1st Intention (Avoid wiping edges, Scar strong enough by 10 days, full strength takes another 2-4 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This is healing by which intention: Two granulating surfaces and some degree of suppuration

A

2nd intention (Most common reasons-Infection, No hair follicles on resulting new skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can you assist in maintaining hemostasis (a process which causes bleeding to stop, meaning to keep blood within a damaged blood vessel) during surgery?

A
  • Clamp and ligate (tie up)
  • Electrocautery
  • Ground
  • Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are suture materials classified?

A
  • Absorption characteristics
  • Number of strands
  • Capillary characteristics
  • Fiber origin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Suture selection depends on what?

A
  • Should be as strong as the tissue it holds
  • Selection is based on the tensile strength of the tissue as well as the organ (Stomach & SI stronger than bladder & colon, Organ strength can vary within the same organ)
  • Also depends on age and size of animal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some reasons for an OVH and disadvantages?

A 
Indications:
-Sterilization
-Removal of estrous cycle
-Infection of tract (pyometra)
-Congenital abnormalities
-Neoplasms 
Disadvantages:
-No more puppies
-No estrogens may cause skin disorder
-Urinary incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition of C-section?

A

removal of fetuses through an uterine incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some indications that a C-section is needed?

A
  • Dystocias
  • Brachycephalics
  • Pelvic injuries
  • Uterine inertia (absence of effective uterine contractions during labor)
  • Obstructive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are Post-op complications of a C-section?

A
  • Hypovolemia and hypotension of the dam
  • Uterine hemorrhage
  • Peritonitis (rare)
  • Agalactia (is absence of or faulty secretion of breast milk following childbirth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some clinical signs of FLUTD (Feline lower urinary tract disease)

A

dysuria, stranguria (strainging), pollakiuria (frequent attempts), hematuria, periuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Feline idiopathic cystitis is similar to what in humans

A

interstitial cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____ is the #1 cause for FLUTD

A

FIC (Feline idiopathic cystitis )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FIC usually lasts how long?

A

3-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What test is best to detect FIC?

A

there is no test, must rule out other causes to diagnose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FLUTD what test is the best to use?

A

urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F Crystals may not be present with uroliths

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of crystals cannot be seen on a radiograph?

A

urate and cystine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F C/D multicare decreases the number of reoccurrences and is an anti-inflammatory with omega 3 fatty acids

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What FIC management option has the highest level of evidence?

A

grade 1 (c/d multicare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stones can develop within ____ weeks

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dissolve nutrition usually takes ___ days to up to ___ days

A

7 to 28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

S/D is used for? How long?

A

struvite dissolution (13 days short term)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most likely urolith type?

A

struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name 3 Vet Tech responsibilities prior to surgery

A

1) Verify ID
2) Verify procedure
3) Verify site
4) Clip hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The prep area is a designated site where what duties are performed on the patient prior to surgery?

A

1) scrubbing the patient
2) clipping the patient
3) pre-anesthetics/anesthetizing the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name 5 duties of the vet tech while assisting in surgery.

A
  • Assist in the sterile draping of the patient
  • Maintain orderly sx field and prevent contamination
  • Organize the instrument table
  • Count sponges and instruments at the beginning and prior to closing
  • Pass instruments and other supplies
  • Assist in proper tissue handling/retraction/etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do we mean by a wound healing by 2nd intention?

A

healing will occur on its own without suturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are 5 of the general post-op rules for the vet tech?

A
  • Carefully monitor for swallowing
  • Maintain warmth of patient
  • Keep patient clean and dry
  • Monitor BT, pulse, RR
  • Record in record, address changes in pattern with DVM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name 5 reasons to spay a dog.

A
  • Sterilization
  • Removal of estrous cycle
  • Infection of tract
  • Congenital abnormalities
  • Neoplasms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What 5 parts of the sterile gown are considered non-sterile?

A

1) the back of the gown
2) just the top of the cuff
3) anything below the waist
4) the shoulders of the gown
5) the collar/neckline of the gown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the name of the new additive in CD food that helps manage inflammation?

A

OMEGA-3 fish oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the term for castration?

A

orchiectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When preparing for a castration what first must you verify?

A

Verify male and not cryptorchid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the term for a declaw?

A

onychectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is being amputated for a declaw?

A

Amputation of nail and 3rd phalanx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When are sutures removed?

A

10-14 days post op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Name an NSAID.

A

Rimadyl, Zubrin, Meloxicam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

____ must be used with caution in cats because they stay in their system for long periods of time without being broken down.

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F Never use Acetaminophen in cats and be careful in dogs because of Heinz body anemias

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F Most dosages of NSAIDs are on an every 2-3 day basis.They must be monitored VERY carefully. Use of NSAIDs in cats is extra-label.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some opioids?

A

morphine, butorphanol, buprenorphine, oxymorphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

_____ effect is 10 times more potent than morphine

A

oxymorphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

____ analgesia is 100 times more potent than morphine

A

fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F Corticosteroids have some analgesic properties

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T/F Corticosteroids can be used in conjunction with NSAIDS.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Remodeling of bone refers to _______ whereas, resorption refers to ______

A

reforming calcium, the bone is being broken down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Non-union refers to an orthopedic complication in which ____

A

that healing is not occurring or cannot occur because of poor decision making or technical failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F Antibiotic therapy is usually given to all patients with closed fractures

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which the is the best physical therapy for orthopedic patients after suture removal?

A

swimming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T/F Pain management should be initiated while the animal is undergoing the orthopedic procedure and is still under the effects of anesthesia

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F During a traumatic injury, stabilization of the patient is more important than addressing a fractured limb.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

T/F The Robert-Jones bandage is only useful when applied to injuries below stifle or elbow

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bandages are usually removed or replaced every?

A

24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are some Post Operative Care of Coaptation Devices?

A
  • Observe toes twice daily for swelling
  • Device must be kept clean and dry
  • Observe limb for signs of irritation or discharge
  • Device should be removed on regular schedule to make observations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Patient must always be ____ before further consideration of fracture

A

stabilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bone location:

  • Open (bone through skin):
    1) small puncture hole around fx
    2) larger puncture or tear
    3) large tears & perhaps loss of tissue in area of impact
  • Closed
A

1) Grade I
2) Grade II
3) Grade III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the 5 types of fractures?

A
  1. Transverse-split in middle
  2. Oblique-split diagonally
  3. Spiral
  4. Comminuted reducible-spiral and diagonally
  5. Comminuted nonreducible-everywhere
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

_____ fractures are frequently seen in young growing animals

A

articular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Limits bony contact between the femoral head and the acetabulum, allow formation of fibrous false joint

A

femoral head ostectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Healed fractures where anatomic alignment was not achieved or maintained

A

Malunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What test is this and what is this used to determine which orthopedic procedure: Excessive craniocaudal movement of the tibia relative to the femur as a result of ligament injury

A

cranial drawer signs, cranial cruciate rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

6 Basic Steps of Wound Management

A
  1. Prevention of further contamination
  2. Debridement of dead and dying tissue
  3. Removal of foreign material and contaminants
  4. Provision of adequate wound drainage
  5. Promotion of a viable vascular bed
  6. Selection of appropriate method of closure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Name and describe the 3 layers of bandaging.

A

1) Primary= rests on wound and may or may not be adherent
2) Secondary= provides absorbency & padding
3) Tertiary= outermost layer that holds the rest together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When clipping an area of traumatic injury, the use of K-Y jelly is to?

A

to control hair around wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the purpose of the Ehmer Sling?

A

Figure eight for non-weight-bearing of pelvic limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Healing of a properly sutured surgical wound is most appropriately termed:

a) first-intention healing
b) granulation
c) secondary union
d) second-intention healing

A

a) first-intention healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Proper splint and bandage care include all of the following except:

a) washing the splint or bandage daily
b) preventing the bandage or split from becoming wet
c) inspect the bandage or splint daily for any change such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage
d) inspect the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb

A

a) washing the splint or bandage daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the purpose of stirrups when apply a bandage?

A

stirrups decrease bandage slippage and “lock” bandage in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A woman brings to a veterinary clinic a mixed-breed Terrier dog that she found lying by the side of the road. The animal is bloody, Palpation of the right forelimb elicits significant pain. After physical examination, which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study:

a) ultrasonography
b) complete blood count
c) magnetic resonance imaging
d) radiography
e) computed tomography

A

d) radiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which antiseptic is more effective against Staphylococcus gureus in dogs?

A

Chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A new veterinary technician is asked to take a thorough patient history on a dog that has been diagnosed with a scapular fracture that may have to be surgically repaired. Which of the following best explains why the history is so important in this case?

a) to determine which type of fixation is best
b) to determine if the dog is a good surgical candidate
c) to determine the dog’s temperament for effective healing processes
d) to determine if any preexisting conditions will increase anesthetic risk
e) all of the above

A

e) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A woman brings to a veterinary clinic a mixed-breed Terrier dog that she found lying by the side of the road. Physical examination shows a fracture of the right radius with a small puncture hole in the skin around the fracture site. The bone is not exposed, which of the following types of fracture is this?

a) closed
b) grade I open
c) grade II open
d) grade III open

A

b) grade I open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Before transporting a patient with a wound, what should you do to the wound?

A

cover the wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

____ more effective on anaerobes and spores

A

Hydrogen Peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is an example of a passive drain? What is an example of a active drain?

A

penrose, closed suction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the main goal of the Primary layer?

A

to minimize tissue injury upon removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The most misunderstood and misused bandage, immobilizes and provides traction

A

Schroeder-Thomas Splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Bandage that Immobilizes the shoulder joint

A

Velpeau Sling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Transmitted by inhalation, ingestion or skin exposure, “coal-like” lesions

A

Anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A 3-year old female Border Collie dog is recovering from surgery to repair the cranial cruciate ligament. Which of the following is the most important advice to give the client regarding physical activity of this dog?

a) short leash walks for at least 6 weeks after surgery
b) no physical activity for at least 8 weeks after surgery
c) abundant physical activity for the first week after surgery
d) long leash walks twice weekly for at least 4 weeks after surgery
e) allow the dog to run freely in the backyard until the animal is brought for recheck in 10 weeks

A

a) short leash walks for at least 6 weeks after surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Bandage that Immobilizes the shoulder joint

A

Velpeau Sling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A 6-year old Irish setter dog is brought to the emergency clinic after being struck by a vehicle. Radiographs show a fractured left tibia. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in treatment.

a) splint fixation
b) external coaptation
c) administration of opioids
d) administration of analgesics
e) fiberglass cast fixation
f) application of modified robert jones bandage

A

d) administration of analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Causative agent for cat-scratch disease (CSD) (BITE)

A

Bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the TLC approach to cancer?

A
  • Tissue diagnosis
  • Location of the tumor
  • Condition of the patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the 3 commandments of cancer care?

A

1) Do not let them hurt
2) Do not let them vomit
3) Do not let them starve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are some early cancer warning signs?

A
  • Abnormal swelling that persists and grows
  • Sores that don’t heal
  • Weight loss
  • Loss of appetite/difficulty eating or swallowing
  • Bleeding/discharge from body opening(s)
  • Offensive odor
  • Persistent lameness/stiffness
  • Hesitation to exercise/loss of stamina
  • Difficulty urinating, breathing, defecating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Chemotherapeutic drugs are _____ to rapidly proliferating cells, which results in clinical side effects of chemotherapy. Most treatment protocols will combine two or more chemotherapeutic drugs for maximum efficacy.

A

cytotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Antineoplastic agents are often administered in various protocols known as

A

combination therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Give 4 comparisons between a wolf vs dog’s social behavior.

A

1) wolves have a closed wolf pack, dogs have an open wolf pack
2) wolves come into estrous once a year, dogs come into estrous twice a year
3) wolves all take care of their babies, dogs usually only the dam does
4) wolves don’t accept outsiders into their pack (usually all related), dogs accept any dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Explain 4 feline social behavior and hierarchies.

A

1) develop a kitten0mother relationship with human
2) aggression is usually fear based
3) they don’t have a dominance trait
4) they don’t have a submissive trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Define socialization and when at what age it begins in dogs, cats, and horses.

A
  • Socialization is when the animal interacts with people or the same species
  • dogs: 4-12 weeks
  • cats: 3-7

weeks
-horses: at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the 4 common reasons for relinquishment of a dog?

A

1) eliminating in the wrong place
2) aggression
3) not listening to owner
4) animal attacking family member or small child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is agnostic behavior and give 3 ways of how a og could react?

A
  • how an animal reacts to a certain situation in which it feels threatened or challenged
  • aggression
  • territorial
  • fear
96
Q

T/F the more fearful a cat is, the wider its pupils contract.

A

false-dilate

97
Q

T/F Cats have scent glands on the chin, lips (in the corners), temples and at the base of the tail.

A

true

98
Q

Weaning complete at approximately ___ days, by week 12 the milk quality __ ______

A

has changed

99
Q

Kittens of older/younger mothers appear to open eyes sooner than those of older/younger mothers. Females/males slightly mature faster than males/females.

A

younger/older, females/males

100
Q

What are the 3 of the main modes of communication of cats?

A

1) olfaction
2) visual
3) vocal

101
Q

What is bunting?

A

when a cat rubs against people

102
Q

Urine spraying may be more oily than that eliminated due to addition of ____

A

anal glands

103
Q

Give 3 reasons of feline aggression directed towards people

A

1) toxoplasmosis
2) brain cancer
3) ischemia

104
Q

Name 3 examples of OCD in cats.

A

1) licking
2) kneading
3) scratching

105
Q

Name medications used for treatment of OCD

A

1) Chlomipramine (Clomicalm)

2) Setraline (Zoloft)

106
Q

T/F In felines miotic (near sighted) is associated with parasympathetic signals in caged animals and mydriatic (far sighted) with sympathetic free roaming cats.

A

true

107
Q

T/F Ignoring your dog as you first enter your home might help break his jumping on people habit.

A

true

108
Q

Positive contrast is seen as ____ (color) while negative contrast is seen in ____ (color)

A

white, black

109
Q

Positive contrast can be either ____ or ___, while negative contrast is always a ___

A

barium, iodine, gas

110
Q

You would use ____ contrast if suspect perforation of gastro intestinal tract.

A

negative

111
Q

Three side effects of iodized media are

A

1) anaphylaxis
2) hypovolemia
3) cardiac arrest

112
Q

How do you prepare a patient before a contrast study? What must you not do?

A

1) fast 12-24 hours
2) enema 2-4 hours
3) do not give enema an hour before

113
Q

Can you mix barium with food?

A

yes

114
Q

How often o you take x-rays on a UGI positive contrast study?

A

5, 15, 30, 60, 90 mins

115
Q

When is barium contraindicated?

A

1) using the urinary system

2) when there is a suspected perforation

116
Q

When is positive contrast indicated in a patient?

A

1) Esophagography
2) Upper git study (UGI)
3) Gastrography
4) Lower GIT study (LGI)

117
Q

Congestive heart failure is the clinical term used to describe:

A

a heart unable to maintain adequate cardiac output

118
Q

Ionizing radiation:

A

causes cell death by disrupting the cell’s DNA or by destroying important molecules required for normal cell function

119
Q

Highly irritating drugs can severely damage blood vessels and surrounding tissue if

A

injected outside the vein

120
Q

T/F Any reports of fatigue, exercise intolerance, collapse, or cough should be investigated further because these may all be secondary to digestive disturbances.

A

false-cardiac not digestive

121
Q

T/F A degloving injury is one in which a small section of skin is torn off the underlying tissue in a glovelike fashion

A

false

122
Q

T/F An Ehmer sling is primarily used after a hip joint injury like closed reduction of craniodorsal hip luxation or surgery associated with the coxofemoral joint. The Ehmer sling should be applied in such a way that it rotates internally and abducts the femoral head, forcing it into the actebaulum and maintaining reduction.

A

false

123
Q

T/F It is generally recommended that the surgical site be scrubbed and rinsed at least two times

A

false-3

124
Q

Substance that is either radiolucent or radiopaque and can be administered to the animal to increase radiographic contrast within the organ or system

A

contrast medium

125
Q

Since most contrast studies require multiple images, you record the ____, ____, and ___

A

amount, type and route of administration of contrast agent

126
Q

____ is water-soluble, the largest group of compounds, low in viscosity for rapid infusions, low in toxicity

A

iodine

127
Q

___ is the medium of choice for GIT studies, completely insoluble, Not diluted by secretions, and not absorbed by GIT

A

barium

128
Q

What makes up the negative contrast studies?

A

Air, O2, N2O, CO2 (gases)

129
Q

Double contrast not recommended for patients with history of?

A

gastric distention or volvulus

130
Q

Enemas should not contain soap due to?

A

to the irritating effect on the mucosa

131
Q

Urography you inject ___ and cystography you inject ___

A

IV, directly into the bladder

132
Q

Injection of positive contrast agent into salivary ducts and glands

A

Sialography

133
Q

Provides information about organ structure independent of function. Based on the pulse/echo principle. Pulse travels through the tissue until it reaches an reflective surface and reflects echo back to probe.

A

ultrasound/sonography

134
Q

Images transmitted in time-oriented graph. Most often used in cardiology. Display quantitative image of heart valve size, chambers, walls and great vessels.

A

M-mode

135
Q

T/F Bone allows no penetration by sound.

A

true

136
Q

Anechoic tissues reflect few if any waves

A

Full urinary bladder

137
Q

Hypoechoic tissues reflect few waves

A

Medullary papilla of kidney

138
Q

Hyperechoic tissues appear white

A

Bladder stone

139
Q

T/F The higher the resonant frequency the greater the resolution but the lower the penetration of the sound beam

A

true

140
Q

Deeper penetration requires lower _____

A

frequency

141
Q

M-mode ___ & 2-D B-mode ____ are used for echocardiography.

A

motion, brightness

142
Q

Assesses turbulence and velocity of rbc’s w/i vessel. Color now added to enhance subtle abnormalities.

A

Doppler

143
Q

How do you prepare a patient for a U/S

A
  • Fast for 12 hours to reduce gas

- Full bladder for scanning bladder or prostate

144
Q

Characteristics evaluated on a U/S

A
  • Size
  • Shape
  • Echo intensity
  • Position
  • Architecture
145
Q

Reverberation-sound waves bounce back and forth between transducer and reflective surface

A

Artifacts

146
Q

What are the primary indications for a CT?

A

1) CNS and PNS diseases

2) Obscured masses in mediastinum, axillary region and retroperitoneal region

147
Q

Noninvasive imaging technique using small amount of radioactive material administered IV, transdermally or by aerosol

A

Nuclear Scintigraphy

148
Q

Images do not produce anatomic detail. Images provide physiologic information about function of specific organs.

A

Nuclear Scintigraphy

149
Q

Nuclear Scintigraphy can be used for?

A

1) Thyroid-cats (Confirm hyperactivity)

2) Bone-Lameness not identified by PE, survey rads, or U/S scan

150
Q

A 2D U/S that reveals cardiac and mediastinal anatomy

A

Long axis

151
Q

A 2D U/S that includes structures from the base to the apex of the heart

A

Short axis

152
Q

Canine developmental stages:

1) Neonatal:
2) Transitional stage:
3) Socialization period:
4) Juvenile period:
5) Adult :

A

1) birth to 13 days
2) 13-19d
3) 19d-12 weeks
4) 12 weeks to sexual maturity
5) from sexual maturity

153
Q

Defined as behaviors that are usually bought on by conflict but that are subsequently shown outside of the original context

A

Compulsive disorders

154
Q

T/F Cats are primarily solitary and are supposed to be territorial animals with little interaction

A

true

155
Q

Define OCD

A

traditionally defined as behaviors that are repetitive, constant and appear to serve no obvious purpose

156
Q

Rolling skin disease, neuritis, twitchy cat disease, atypical neurodermatitis

A

hyperesthesia

157
Q

Congestive heart failure is the clinical term used to describe:

A

heart unable to maintain adequate cardiac output

158
Q

Hypertropic, dilated, and restrictive are all forms of?

A

canine heart disease

159
Q

Nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dypsnea. The mm show signs of pallor. The veterinarian diagnoses this as ___, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues.

A

hypoxia

160
Q

Chemotherapeutic drug:

A

cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as cells of bone marrow, the gi tract, or air follicles

161
Q

A __ drain is the most commonly used passive drain in small animal practice and is generally placed into smaller wounds and dead space

A

Penrose

162
Q

In small animals, loud, persistent, vocalizing after an operation is generally considered a?

A

sign of significant pain and/or anxiety that needs attention

163
Q

The veterinarian uses a ___ to stabilize a fracture, placing pins through the skin and bones

A

external fixator

164
Q

The veterinary technician’s role in surgery can include all of the following except:

a) manipulating the instrumentation and tissues into position as a sterile assistant
b) performing minor surgical procedures under direct veterinary supervision
c) monitoring anesthesia
d) administering medication per the veterinarian’s request

A

b) performing minor surgical procedures under direct veterinary supervision

165
Q

Surgically prepared skin is considered ___, not ___.

A

aseptic, sterile

166
Q

Highly irritating drugs can severely damage blood vessels and surrounding tissue if

A

injected outside the vein

167
Q

What organ is the primary site for drug metabolism?

A

liver

168
Q

Cryotherapy is used to:

A

decrease enzyme activity

169
Q

Yogurt supplements a diet with ____ to help balance the GI system.

A

probiotics

170
Q

Which of the following is the most common fixative used in histopathological examination:

a) 37% Formaldehyde
b) 70% ethyl alcohol
c) bouin fixative
d) 10% buffered formalin

A

d) 10% buffered formalin

171
Q

T/F Cryotherapy, or cold therapy, when applied to the body, removes heat. Some of the actions are vasoconstriction, which reduces, postsurgical bleeding and busing, slowed nerve pnduction, and decreased enzyme activity (decreasing inflammation)

A

true

172
Q

T/F When an infected deer tick bites a host (an animal or person) to feed, the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi is transferred to the host. Lyme disease in humans is characterized by aches in the joints, fever, and a host of other flulike symptoms

A

true

173
Q

T/F When assessing patients for pain, veterinary technicians should be able to recognize signs of discomfort that may include tachycardia, tachyon, elevated temperature, unwillingness to use a limb or to posture for normal eliminations

A

true

174
Q

T/F Hypoxia can result form reduced blood flow, decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, hypoventilation, or ventilation/perfusion mismatch

A

true

175
Q

T/F Wound healing is a continuous process that starts at the moment of injury and lasts up to months thereafter

A

true

176
Q

A bitch that keeps aborting her puppies should be checked for ___

A

Brucellosis

177
Q

Shutting a particular door is a way to minimize inappropriate behavior by?

A

managing the pet’s environment

178
Q

Delivering punishment within a few seconds after a behavior event refers to ___ of punishment

A

immediacy

179
Q

To prevent or minimize inappropriate behavior by a pet, the owners must?

A

use crate training with the puppy

180
Q

Which of the following is true about a dog’s normal social behavior:

a) dog behavior problems are caused by dominance
b) scruff shakes and alpha rolls are two effective, recommended methods of taming a dominant-behaving dog
c) dog social groups, when free range, behave just like wolf packs
d) dogs’ roles as dominant or subordinate may change between individuals depending on what is happening

A

d) dogs’ roles as dominant or subordinate may change between individuals depending on what is happening

181
Q

The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called?

A

socialization

182
Q

Components of a behavior wellness program include:

a) discouraging socialization of young animals
b) allowing owners to select a pet without providing information for them
c) sharing behavior knowledge with a client only when a problem arises
d) providing timely referrals when needed

A

d) providing timely referrals when needed

183
Q

The most important socialization period in pups is:

A

4 to 12 weeks

184
Q

The most important socialization period in kittens is:

A

3 to 7 weeks

185
Q

Eight-week-old puppies can usually be kept in a crate for approximately ___ hours without soiling their crates

A

4 to 6 hours

186
Q

It is reasonable to confine a puppy in a crate as part of a house training program for:

A

only for as long as the puppy can be expected to control its bladder and bowels based n its age

187
Q

An immediate pleasant occurrence that follows a behavior is referred to as:

A

positive reinforcement

188
Q

Behaviors that animals show in situations involving social conflict are

A

agnostic

189
Q

Exposing a pet that is afraid of thunder to noise by playing recordings of thunderstorms during increased period of time is an example of:

A

habituation

190
Q

Stress reaction can manifest itself in the following steps:

a) alarm- interaction of the nervous impulses and hormone release leads to optimum efficiency
b) resistance- attempt to cope lowers resistance to to other stressors
c) exhaustion- no longer able to cope despite the original adaption
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

191
Q

T/F Cats can be taught inhibition to reduce bites and scratches but will not become submissive.

A

true

192
Q

T/F Kittens f younger mothers appear to open eyes sooner than those of older mothers.

A

true

193
Q

T/F Ear pulled all the way down and to the rear with outer pinna flattened and inner pinna not visible is an indication of an extremely relaxed cat.

A

false

194
Q

T/F Certain drugs ( slow release corticoids or progestins) can trigger sudden mood changes in cats.

A

true

195
Q

T/F Rolling skin disorder, decreased face rubbing, alterations of self grooming, can be signs of anxiety in cats.

A

true

196
Q

T/F Neutering always solves elimination problems in both dogs and cats.

A

false

197
Q

T/F In cats early weaning develops stronger predatory behaviors and may affect play behaviors

A

true

198
Q

T/F In felines Miotic is associated with parasympathetic signals in caged animals and Mydriatic sympathetic ( far sighted) with free roaming cats.

A

true

199
Q

T/F In nuclear scintigraphy, images produce great anatomic detail as well as providing us with physiological information about function of specific organs

A

false

200
Q

CT scan or MRI

1) typically runs for about 30 mins
2) suited for examining soft tissue in ligament and tendon injuries, spinal cord injuries, brain tumors
3) usually completed within 5 mins
4) best suited for viewing bone injuries, diagnosing lung and chest problems, and detecting cancers
5) does not use radiation
6) uses radiation
7) provides high-resolution cross-sectional anatomical images
8) very detailed imaging, especially for imaging soft tissues

A

1) MRI
2) MRI
3) CT
4) CT
5) CT
6) MRI
7) CT
8) MRI

201
Q

If passes through perforation into body cavity, is not resorbed and may cause a granulomatous reaction

A

barium contrast

202
Q

Possible toxicity a concern local irritant if perivascular

A

iodine contrast medium

203
Q

Used to supplement or confirm information from plain films

A

special radiographic techniques

204
Q

Substance that is either radiolucent or radiopaque can can be administered to the animal to increase radiographic contrast within the organ or system

A

contrast medium

205
Q

Gases with low specific gravity

A

negative contrast

206
Q

Barium or iodine

A

positive contrast

207
Q

Uses both positive and negative contrast for optimal mucosal detail

A

double contrast study

208
Q

Explain the applications of an M-mode ultrasound

A

Its used to measure the organs in motion

209
Q

Why must you place a towel beneath a small animal’s thorax when performing a cardiac ultrasound?

A

In order to position the heart and ribs so the heart is easier to get to

210
Q

Explain when you would use a 7.5 MHz ultrasound probe on a patient

A

when the animal is small in size

211
Q

What are the 3 roles with the staff for rehab and what do they do?

A

1) The veterinarian: maintains responsibility for the case
2) The physical therapist: trained in Animal Rehabilitation; consults and develops the therapeutic program and performs the treatment techniques and modalities
3) The veterinary technician: trained in Animal Rehabilitation, assist the hands-on care freeing the vet and the PT to see the next case

212
Q

T/F Kennel confinement until rads show proof of healing of fracture.

A

true

213
Q

Limb is retracted or folded, digit is bent, back or neck is arched

A

flexion

214
Q

Limb reaches out, digit is extended and the back or neck is less arched dorsally or arched ventrally

A

extension

215
Q

Moves in transverse plane so the distal part moves away from the midline of the body

A

abduction

216
Q

Distal part moves towards the midline

A

adduction

217
Q

Movement at a joint during which a bone or body segment outlines the surface of a cone or circle. Does not require rotation at the joint.

A

circumduction

218
Q

External rotation of limb so that paw faces medially

A

Supination

219
Q

Internal rotation of the limb so that paw faces laterally

A

pronation

220
Q

____ defined as entire range of physiological movement

A

range of motion (ROM)

221
Q

T/F Neutral is low stiffness, and allows motion to occur freely within certain range.
Elastic is measured from end of neutral to physiological limit and is a zone of higher stiffness.

A

true

222
Q

Tissues most affected by immobilization are:

A

Cartilage, muscle, ligaments, tendon, bones

223
Q

The veterinarian asses the patient every?

A

Baseline assessment prior to therapy-Fully assess q 2 weeks

224
Q

What are some therapeutic exercises?

A
  • Standing
  • Slow walks
  • Stair climbing
  • Treadmill
  • Aquatic therapy
225
Q

If they are not toe touching day 1 post op then ____

A

adjust pain meds

226
Q

How can you encourage weight shifting?

A

Weight shifting exercises can be started (bumping the opposite side to force weight on the surgical limb).

227
Q

T/F One of the important long term goals of a TPLO is to build muscle strength in the quads and especially hamstring to help dampen tibial thrust.

A

true

228
Q

What are some Chondroprotectants and Nutraceuticals?

A
  • Glucosamine

- Chondroitin sulfate

229
Q

Treatment of the body and spirit of the animal as a unit rather than symptomatic treatment

A

Holistic Medicine

230
Q

Treatment with alternative therapies in association with traditional Western modalities

A

Complementary Medicine

231
Q

Any non-traditional modality

A

Alternative Medicine

232
Q

1) Effleurage
2) Tapotement
3) Petrissage
4) Shiatsu

A

1) brushing
2) tapping
3) rolling and kneading
4) deep pressure along meridian lines

233
Q

____ Causes complex cascade of body responses & release of various neurochemicals & hormones in CSF & bloodstream

A

acupuncture

234
Q

Descartes’ divided the body into systems. Each one further divided and functions explained.

A

Western (allopathic)

235
Q

Health and dz as interrelated dynamic processes. Dz is due to disharmony in body’s rhythms. Dx developed by patient observation, hx, full evaluation by all the senses.

A

Eastern

236
Q

Yin-Yang Theory= all things being part of continuous cycle. Yin is ___, yang is ___.

A

cold, heat

Nursing LAB 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions