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RADI > All The Things... > Flashcards

All The Things... Flashcards

1
Q

If kVp is increased without adjusting any other factors, what happens to patient dose?

A

patient dose increases

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2
Q

If kVp is increased and there is an accompanying decrease in mAs, what happens to patient dose?

A

patient dose decreases

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3
Q

What is the best method of using exposure factors to reduce patient dose?

A

selection of the highest kVp consistent with image quality

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4
Q

Decreasing mAs does what to patient dose?

A

decreases patient dose

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5
Q

If mAs is increased and kVp is decreased, what happens to patient dose?

A

patient dose increases

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6
Q

Which of the following would crease the least amount of patient exposure?
A. 68 kVp @ 25 mAs
B. 80 kVp @ 12.5 mAs

A

B. 15% increase in kVp and cutting mAs in half decreases patient dose

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7
Q

The use of specific area shielding is warranted when?

A

any time a radiosensitive organ or tissue is in or near the useful beam (gonadal, breasts)

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8
Q

What is the most common area shielded?

A

gonadal

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9
Q

What is the most important area to shield?

A

gonadal

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10
Q

What are the three rules for gonadal shielding?

A
  1. should be used on all potentially reproductive aged patients
  2. used when radiosensitive areas lie in or near the primary beam
  3. used in accompaniment with collimation and careful positioning
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11
Q

What are the two general types of shields?

A
  1. shadow

2. contact

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12
Q

What are some shielding items (protective apparel) used in this field?

A 
apron
gloves
thyroid collar
goggles
movable walls
gonadal shields
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13
Q

What are the parameters that are used to determine if a radiosensitive area is close enough to the primary beam to require shielding?

A

within 2 inches or 5 cm of the primary beam

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14
Q

When used properly, what two things can beam restriction do?

A

reduce patient dose and improve image quality

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15
Q

In what two ways does proper collimation help to reduce patient exposure?

A
  1. reduces the volume of tissue directly irradiated

2. reduces the amount of scatter radiation

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16
Q

What are the 3 types of beam restricting devices?

A
  1. Aperture diaphragm
  2. Cones/cylinders
  3. Collimators
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17
Q

What is the most common beam restrictor used?

A

Collimation

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18
Q

What is Positive-Beam Limitation (PBL)?

A

when the collimator automatically adjusts the beam to the size of the IR being used

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19
Q

Between what years was positive beam limitation required on all equipment?

A

1974-1994

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20
Q

The positive-beam limitation (PBL) must be accurate to within what percentage of the SID?

A

2%

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21
Q

What are two groups of digital radiography reusable detectors?

A
  1. Cassette-based (indirect digital-CR)

2. Cassette-less (direct digital-DR)

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22
Q

Define photo-stimulable phsophor

A

rigid sheets with several layers that are designed to record and enhance transmission of the image from a beam of ionizing radiation

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23
Q

What are the two types of photo-stimulable phosphor imaging plates used in CR cassettes?

A
  1. turbid phosphor

2. structured phosphor (needle)

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24
Q

Cassette-less systems (DR) include a photo-stimulable storage phosphor and what other two things?

A

Flat-panel and CCD (Charged-coupled device)

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25
Q

What are the two types of flat panel detectors?

A

direct and indirect

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26
Q

What are flat panel detectors?

A

an array of millions of detectors that are usually built into the bucky

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27
Q

Each square in the matrix of a flat panel detector is called what?

A

a detector element (DEL)

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28
Q

What do the detector elements (DEL) do?

A

collect the electrons given off by amorphous selenium or silicon

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29
Q

Define direct acquisition

A

directly converts the incoming x-rays into an electronic signal (x-rays to electrons)

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30
Q

What do direct capture detectors utilize as a detector?

A

amorphous selenium

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31
Q

Define indirect acquisition

A

a two-part process that first converts x-rays to light then converts the light into electrons

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32
Q

Indirect acquisition requires what two components?

A

a scintillator and a photodetector

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33
Q

What kind of scintillator do indirect acquisition systems utilize to convert x-rays into visible light?

A

cesium iodide

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34
Q

Indirect acquisition systems use what to convert the light into an electronic signal?

A

amorphous silicon

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35
Q

What does a scintillator do?

A

converts incoming x-ray photons to light

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36
Q

What does a photodetector do?

A

converts light into an electronic signal

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37
Q

What is the thin film transistor (TFT)?

A

a complex circuit device that collects electrons emitted from either amorphous selenium or amorphous silicon

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38
Q

PSP plates should be erased how often if they have not been used?

A

every 48 hours

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39
Q

Should electronic collimation be used in place of beam restriction?

A

Hellz no

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40
Q

What does the look-up table (LUT) do?

A

converts raw data from digital signal to different numbers to determine the contrast in an image

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41
Q

Define histogram

A

they graphically represent a collection of exposure values extracted from the receptor

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42
Q

The predetermined values used to create an image are known as what?

A

the values of interest

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43
Q

Automatic rescaling permits what?

A

the consistent output of image data and image display appearance even when errors in exposure technique are present

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44
Q

What are the two classifications of digitized image filters?

A

high-pass (edge enhancement)

low-pass (smoothing/noise-suppression)

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45
Q

High-pass filtering (edge enhancement) either amplifies or deletes all but what frequencies?

A

all but the high frequencies

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46
Q

Edge enhancement or high-pass filtering is also referred to as what?

A

sharpening

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47
Q

Low-pass filtering (smoothing/noise suppression) either amplifies or deletes all but what frequencies?

A

all but the low frequencies

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48
Q

Contrast in digital radiography is controlled by what?

A

the look-up table selected from the menu

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49
Q

Define ghost image

A

an image from a previous exposure caused by imaging plate not being completely erased

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50
Q

Define banding artifact

A

alternating light/dark strips caused by transport of the imaging plate through the CR reader in the slow scan direction

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51
Q

Define dark noise

A

the noise on an unexposed image due to improper erasure of the plate reader

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52
Q

Define dead pixels

A

a flat-panel detector that has detectors not functioning correctly

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53
Q

What are readout problems

A

malfunction of the reader due to lack of proper calibration of exposure indicators, laser function, and throughput

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54
Q

What are the components of a CR plate reader?

A

read area
erasure area
plate or light collecting system moves

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55
Q

Nasogastric tubes are also called?

A

NG tubes

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56
Q

Nasogastroc tubes are made of what?

A

silicone or rubber

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57
Q

Where are nasogastric tubes inserted?

A

into the stomach, duodenum, and jejunum

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58
Q

What is the purpose of a nasogastric (NG) tube?

A

to keep the stomach free of gastric contents and air, aids in healing process before and after surgery

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59
Q

Nasoenteric tubes are also called?

A

NE Tubes

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60
Q

Nasoenteric tubes are allowed to pass into the small intestine how?

A

by peristalsis

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61
Q

What are nasoenteric tubes used for?

A

to aid patients who are unable to obtain nourishment or take oral medications

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62
Q

What is a gastronomy tube?

A

a surgical opening into the stomach

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63
Q

Where is a gastronomy tube placed?

A

the tube is attached to the wall of the stomach

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64
Q

What is a gastronomy tube used for?

A

the purpose of feeding the patient

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65
Q

What are implanted ports used for?

A

patients with long term medication administration, frequent blood transfusions or blood draws, and parenteral nutrition

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66
Q

What are the two most common types of central venous catheters?

A
  1. Hickmann

2. Broviac

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67
Q

Central venous catheters are also called?

A

PIC lines

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68
Q

What are central venous catheters used for?

A

long-term medication or transfusion on patients with a long-term illness

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69
Q

Where are central venous catheters planted?

A

in the top right side of the chest

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70
Q

What is a tracheostomy?

A

an opening in the trachea created surgically to relieve respiratory distress

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71
Q

What are endotracheal tubes used for?

A

to establish or open the airway

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72
Q

Where are endotracheal tubes placed?

A

through the mouth and into the trachea

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73
Q

If an endotracheal tube is placed too high, what can happen?

A

push air into the stomach

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74
Q

If an endotracheal tube is placed too low, what can happen?

A

can cause a lung to collapse

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75
Q

When is a chest tube needed?

A

when there is air in the pleural cavity which can cause a lung to collapse (pneumothorax)
OR
blood of fluid are accumulating in the lung (hemothorax)

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76
Q

Where should chest tube containers be placed?

A

Below the chest at all times

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77
Q

What are the 3 most common tissue drains?

A
  1. Hemovac
  2. Jackson-Pratt
  3. Penrose
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78
Q

What are tissue drains used for?

A

placed at or near a wound site/operative site if a large amount of drainage is expected

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79
Q

What are T-tubes used for?

A

to collect bile

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80
Q

How many bones are in the body?

A

206

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81
Q

What does the circulatory system do?

A

distributes oxygen to the cells and transports waste products from cells

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82
Q

What does the digestive system do?

A

absorption and elimination

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83
Q

What does the respiratory system do?

A

supplies oxygen and eliminates carbon dioxide

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84
Q

What does the urinary system do?

A

Regulates the blood and eliminates waste products

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85
Q

What does the nervous system do?

A

regulates body activities

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86
Q

What does the muscular system do?

A

allows for movement; skeletal, visceral, and cardiac types of muscles

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87
Q

What does the endocrine system do?

A

it is the ductless glands of the body and it regulates the body via hormones

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88
Q

What does the integumentary system do?

A

protects the body and eliminates wastes through perspiration

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89
Q

How many bones are in the axial skeleton?

A

80

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90
Q

What bones are included in the axial skeleton?

A

skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum

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91
Q

How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?

A

126

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92
Q

What bones are included in the appendicular skeleton?

A

the limbs, shoulder, and pelvic girdle

93
Q

What are the 4 classifications of bones?

A
  1. long
  2. flat
  3. short
  4. irregular
94
Q

What bones are considered long bones?

A

the bones of the limbs

95
Q

What bones are considered short bones?

A

Carpal and tarsal bones

96
Q

What bones are considered flat bones?

A

ribs, sternum, scapulae

97
Q

What bones are considered irregular bones?

A

vertebrae, facial bones, pelvic bones

98
Q

What are the 3 structural joint classifications?

A
  1. synovial
  2. cartilaginous
  3. fibrous
99
Q

What are the 3 functional joint classifications

A
  1. synarthrodial
  2. amphiarthrodial
  3. diarthrodial
100
Q

What are the 7 movement types of synovial joints?

A
  1. plane (gliding)
  2. ginglymus (hinge)
  3. trochoid (pivot)
  4. ellipsoid (condyloid)
  5. sellar (saddle)
  6. spheroidal (ball and socket)
  7. bicondylar
101
Q

How does the sagittal plane cut the body?

A

in half left to right

102
Q

How does the coronal (frontal) plane cut the body?

A

in half front and back

103
Q

How does a horizontal (transverse, axial) plane cut the body?

A

in top and bottom sections

104
Q

Define ventral surface

A

anterior surface

105
Q

Define dorsal surface

A

posterior surface

106
Q

Define filtration

A

the process of eliminating undesirable low-energy x-ray photons by the insertion of absorbent materials into the primary beam

107
Q

What is the primary reason for the use of filtration?

A

to eliminate photons that would increase dose to the patient but not enhance the image

108
Q

Filtration is called doing what to the beam?

A

hardening of the beam

109
Q

What does filtration do to the average beam energy?

A

increases the beam energy (beam quality and penetrability)

110
Q

Based on NCRP report #102, what is the minimum total filtration level recommended for a machine operating below 50 kVp?

A

0.5mm Aluminum

111
Q

Based on NCRP report #102, what is the minimum total filtration level recommended for a machine operating between 50 and 70 kVp?

A

1.5 mm Aluminum

112
Q

Based on NCRP report #102, what is the minimum total filtration level recommended for a machine operating over 70 kVp?

A

2.5 mm Aluminum

113
Q

AEC stands for what?

A

automatic exposure control

114
Q

What does AEC do?

A

eliminates the need for the radiographer to set an exposure time, shuts off the exposure when enough radiation has reached the IR

115
Q

What are a few main ways to help reduce exposure in pediatric patients?

A
  • minimize repeat exposures
  • utilize higher speed film/screen combos
  • use appropriate shielding
  • use immobilization devices and shorter exposure times when possible to reduce motion
116
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

117
Q

ALARA follows what type of dose-response relationship?

A

linear, non-threshold

118
Q

We comply with ALARA because we must always assume what about any dose of radiation?

A

any dose, regardless of size, produces a response

119
Q

What are 4 important ways ALARA can be achieved?

A
  1. always wear personnel monitoring devices
  2. restraint devices when possible vs. us holding
  3. close collimation, filtration, minimal repeats, high kVP
  4. follow the 3 cardinal principles of radiation protection
120
Q

What are the 3 cardinal principles of radiation protection?

A

time
distance
shielding

121
Q

What does tomography do?

A

utilizes the motion of x-ray tube and image receptor to blur unwanted structures above and below the plane of interest

122
Q

What is the fulcrum in tomography?

A

the pivot point around which the motions of the tube and image receptor are centered

123
Q

What determines the focal plane and section level in tomography?

A

the fulcrum

124
Q

What is a fixed fulcrum?

A

when the patient moves up and down to change level

125
Q

What is an adjustable fulcrum?

A

when the patient is stationary and the machine moves up and down to change level

126
Q

What is the focal plane in tomography?

A

the area in which the image exhibits satisfactory recorded detail

127
Q

How do objects closer to the fulcrum appear?

A

less blurred

128
Q

How do objects further from the fulcrum appear?

A

more blurred

129
Q

The focal plane in tomography may also be referred to as what?

A

section, section level, layer height, object plane, and depth of focus

130
Q

What is the section thickness in tomography?

A

the width of the focal plane which is controlled by the exposure angle

131
Q

What is the section interval in tomography?

A

the distance between fulcrum levels

132
Q

What is the tomographic amplitude?

A

the total distance that the tube travels, including the travel without exposure

133
Q

What type of relationship is there between the tomographic amplitude and the section thickness?

A

an inverse relationship

134
Q

What is the exposure amplitude?

A

the total distance that the tube travels ONLY during the exposure

135
Q

Is the exposure amplitude less, equal to, or more than the tomographic amplitude?

A

always less or equal to

136
Q

What determines the thickness of the tomographic cut?

A

the exposure amplitude

137
Q

If there is a wider exposure amplitude (angle, arc), what happens to the cut?

A

thinner cuts

138
Q

If there is a narrower exposure amplitude (angle, arc), what happens to the cut?

A

thicker cuts

139
Q

What is the blur in tomography?

A

the streaking or smearing that results in the loss of nearly all recorded detail of objects outside of the focal plane

140
Q

What are the 5 motions that blurring patterns are determined by?

A
  1. linear
  2. circular
  3. elliptical
  4. hypocycloidal
  5. spiral
141
Q

What is the primary use of tomography?

A

nephrotomography

142
Q

Define luminance

A

the brightness of a monitor display

143
Q

Define pixel size

A

measure from side to side of the pixel

144
Q

Define pixel pitch

A

measure from the center of one pixel to the center of an adjacent pixel

145
Q

What are the two ways to measure pixels?

A

pixel size and pixel pitch

146
Q

What characteristics affect spatial resolution in cassette based systems?

A

sampling frequency, receptor size, and phosphor thickness

147
Q

For cassette-less systems, spatial resolution depends on what?

A

the detector element size? (DEL)

148
Q

DEL stands for what?

A

detector element size

149
Q

If you increase the DEL size, what happens to the spatial resolution?

A

it decreases

150
Q

The scale of contrast is referred to as what in digital radiography?

A

gray scale

151
Q

Is the dynamic range for digital imaging smaller or larger than film?

A

larger

152
Q

The number of shades of gray reached is determined by what?

A

gray scale bit depth

153
Q

What is the formula to calculate bit depth?

A

2^n where “n” is the number of bits

154
Q

8 bits would equal what bit depth/how many shades of gray?

A

256 shades of gray (2^8)

155
Q

10 bits would equal what bit depth/how many shades of gray?

A

1,024 shades of gray (2^10)

156
Q

Define window level

A

describes the digital processing that produces changes in density/brightness

157
Q

Define window width

A

accurately describes the digital processing that produces changes in gray scale or contrast level

158
Q

What are the 4 main vital signs used?

A
  1. temperature
  2. pulse
  3. respiration
  4. blood pressure
159
Q

What is the average oral temperature of an adult?

A

98.6 F or 37 C

160
Q

What is the average axillary temperature of an adult?

A

97.6 F or 36.4 C

161
Q

What is the average rectal temperature of an adult?

A

99.6 F or 37.5 C

162
Q

What is the average temperature of an infant (3 months to 3 years)?

A

99 F or 37.2 C

163
Q

What is the average temperature of a child (5 years to 13 years)?

A

97.8 F (36.7 C) to 98.6 F (37 C)

164
Q

What are the symptoms of a fever?

A 
increased pulse and respiratory rate
discomfort and aching
flushed dry skin
chills
loss of appetite
165
Q

A person who has a high body temperature above normal limits is said to have what?

A

pyrexia

166
Q

A person who has a low body temperature below normal limits is said to have what?

A

hypothermia

167
Q

What is the average pulse rate of an adult?

A

60 to 90 beats per minute

168
Q

What is the average pulse rate of an infant?

A

120 beats per minute

169
Q

What is the average pulse rate of a child?

A

90 to 100 beats per minute

170
Q

What are the 9 most common locations of a pulse?

A
  1. apical (apex of heart)
  2. radial (wrist at base of thumb)
  3. carotid (front of neck)
  4. femoral (femoral artery in groin)
  5. popliteal (posterior surface of knee)
  6. temporal (in front of ear)
  7. dorsalis pedis (top of foot)
  8. posterior tibial (inside of ankle)
  9. brachial (inside groove above elbow)
171
Q

What is the most common location used for taking the pulse?

A

The radial artery

172
Q

Define tachycardia

A

abnormally rapid heart rate (over 100 bpm)

173
Q

Define brachycardia

A

abnormally slow heart rate (blow 60 bpm)

174
Q

What is the average respiration rate of an adult?

A

15 to 20 breaths per minute

175
Q

What is the average respiration rate of an infant?

A

30 to 60 breaths per minute

176
Q

Systolic measurement in the blood pressure measures what?

A

the amount of blood flow ejected from the left ventricle of the heart

177
Q

Diastolic measurement in the blood pressure measures what?

A

the amount of resistance the blood meets due to systemic vascular resistance

178
Q

Blood pressure is measured in what?

A

mm Hg (mm of mercury)

179
Q

What is a pulse oximeter used for?

A

to measure the oxygen saturation in the patient

180
Q

What is the oxygen saturation level for most patients?

A

95% or higher

181
Q

What percentage of oxygen saturation indicates that the tissues are not receiving enough oxygen?

A

85% or lower

182
Q

Three components of analog image receptor film/screen systems include what?

A
  1. Cassette
  2. Intensifying screen
  3. Film
183
Q

What four properties does an analog image possess?

A

density, contrast, detail, and distortion

184
Q

Film speed is a measure of what?

A

the amount of density produced for a given amount of exposure

185
Q

Carlton/Adler states that the second most effective method of reducing patient dose is what?

A

to use the highest possible film/screen combination

186
Q

Extremity exams would warrant a high resolution/detail and would utilize a higher or lower film screen combination?

A

Lower (100-200 speed)

187
Q

What are the two groups of digital detectors?

A
  1. cassette-based (CR)

2. cassette-less (DR)

188
Q

Speed class refers to what?

A

the operational exposure level at which a digital imaging system is operated

189
Q

Contrast and dose have what type of relationship in digital imaging?

A

Contrast is unrelated to dose in digital imaging

190
Q

What is exposure latitude?

A

the range of under or over exposure that can occur in producing an acceptable image and does not violate ALARA

191
Q

Using a grid (vs non grid) dose what to patient dose?

A

increases it

192
Q

Using a lower grid ratio while still maintaining the exposure (decreasing kVp or mAs) dose what to dose?

A

can significantly reduce it

193
Q

It is recommended to use a grid if the body part is thicker than what?

A

10 cm

194
Q

Source to skin distance must not be less than what for a stationary unit?

A

15 inches or 38 centimeters

195
Q

Source to skin distance must not be less than what for a mobile unit?

A

12 inches or 30 centimeters

196
Q

The fluoroscopic image receptor assembly serves as a primary protective barrier and must be what thickness of lead equivalent?

A

2mm

197
Q

At the normal position for a radiologist or radiologic tech, the exposure rate is approximately what?

A

300mR/hr

198
Q

By taking just two steps back, the exposure rate for a radiologist or radiologic tech can be reduced to approximately what?

A

5mR/hr

199
Q

An audible signal must go off when a fluoroscopy unit timer reaches what time?

A

5 minutes

200
Q

Federal standards have set limits of exposure rates of intensified fluoro units to what?

A

10R/min or 2.1R/min/mA

201
Q

What is quality assurance?

A

it consists of activities that provide adequate confidence that a radiology service will render consistently high quality images and services

202
Q

Quality assurance evaluating activities may include what?

A 
interpretation of exams
maintenance of equipment
performance of procedures
filing systems
staff development
scheduling of exams
supply lines
203
Q

What are the three steps in the quality assurance process?

A

identifying the problems or potential problem areas
monitoring the problem
resolving the problem

204
Q

What is quality control?

A

the aspect of quality assurance that monitors technical equipment to maintain quality standards

205
Q

Source-to-image receptor distance indicator must be accurate to within +/- what percentage of the indicated SID?

A

+/- 2%

206
Q

Collimation error is allowed in +/- what percentage between the primary-beam image and the light field size?

A

+/- 2%

207
Q

Positive-beam limitation (PBL) must be accurate to within +/- what percentage of the SID?

A

+/- 2%

208
Q

Central ray alignment must be within +/- what percentage of the light field central ray?

A

1%

209
Q

Congruency of the light and x-ray field may be tested by using what test?

A

the penny test

210
Q

Define distortion

A

the misrepresentation of the size or shape of the structures being examined

211
Q

What are the two types of distortion?

A
  1. size

2. shape

212
Q

What two factors affect size distortion?

A

OID and SID

213
Q

What two main factors affect shape distortion?

A

Alignment (CR, part, IR) and Angulation (direction, degree)

214
Q

Increasing the SID does what to size distortion?

A

decreases

215
Q

Decreasing the SID does what to size distortion?

A

increases

216
Q

Increasing the OID does what to size distortion?

A

Increases

217
Q

Decreasing the OID does what to size distortion?

A

decreases

218
Q

Increasing the patient thickness does what to size distortion?

A

increases

219
Q

Decreasing the patient thickness does what to size distortion?

A

decreases

220
Q

Improper CR alignment will do what to shape distortion?

A

increase it

221
Q

improper anatomical alignment will do what to shape distortion?

A

increase it

222
Q

Improper IR alignment will do what to shape distortion?

A

increase it

223
Q

Improper direction of the CR angle will do what to shape distortion?

A

increase it

224
Q

magnification size distortion is minimized by doing what?

A

increasing the SID

225
Q

What is the formula for determining magnification?

A

M = SID/SOD

226
Q

Foreshortening and magnification happen due to what?

A

changes in the anatomical part alignment (body part angled)

227
Q

Elongation and magnification happen due to what?

A

changes in the IR and CR or IR and part alignment (IR angled)

228
Q

Due to radiographs being considered legal documents, what 4 markings must be included on them?

A
  1. patient’s name and/or ID number
  2. left or right markers
  3. date of the exam
  4. name of the institution or office

RADI (4 decks)

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