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Abdominal Final > Abdominal Final > Flashcards

Abdominal Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a type of aneurysm?

  • saccular
  • pseudoaneurysm
  • annular
  • balloon
A

*saccular

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2
Q

What is one of the symptoms for a ruptured aneurysm?

  • increased hermatocrit
  • hypertension
  • low back pain
  • all of the above are symptoms of a ruptured aneurysm
A

*all of the above are symptoms of a ruptured aneurysm

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3
Q

What measurement indicates an abdominal aneurysm?

  • 1 cm
  • > 3cm
  • < 3cm
  • 3 cm
A

*> 3cm

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4
Q

A pulsatile hematoma, which results from the leakage of blood into the soft tissue adjacent to a punctured artery is______?

  • saccular aneurysm
  • fusiform aneurysm
  • aortic dissection
  • pseudoaneurysm
A

*pseudoaneurysm

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of an aneurysm?

  • atherosclerosis
  • alcohol abuse
  • smoking
  • genetics
A

*atherosclerosis

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6
Q

What are the acceptable treatment option for abdominal aneurysm that measures 6cm?

  • nothing this is normal
  • evaluate it every 6 months using ultrsound
  • surgery
  • this size is considered to high risk for surgery
A

*surgery

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7
Q

What is the primary function of the aorta?

  • pump oxygenated blood to the heart
  • pump unoxygenated blood to the body
  • pump oxygenated blood to the body
  • pump unoxygenated blood to the heart
A

*pump oxygenated blood to the body

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8
Q

A 55 year old man is seen for a routine physical examination. During the examination, the physicians feels a pulsatile mass at the level of the umbilicus. An ultrasound is ordered for which of the following indications?

  • to rule out rupture
  • to rule out abdominal aortic aneurysm
  • to rule out atherosclerotic disease
  • to rule out dissection
A

*to rule out abdominal aortic aneurysm

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9
Q

The first branch off the abdominal aorta is:

  • Superior mesenteric artery
  • Celiac axis
  • Superior mesenteric vein
  • Inferior mesenteric vein
A

*celiac axis

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10
Q

A 40 year old man with a history of Marfan syndrome is seen with intense chest pain in the emergency department. Which of the following diagnoses should should be the primary consideration?

  • aortic dissection
  • heart attack
  • aortic aneurysm
  • aortic rupture
A

*aortic dissection

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11
Q

What are two vessels that are nonresistive?

  • renal artery
  • femoral artery
  • splenic artery
  • Aorta
A
  • renal artery

* splenic artery

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12
Q

What is used to prevent thrombi from traveling to the lungs and becoming pulmonary emboli?

  • bed rest
  • surgica removal of thrombus
  • blood thinner
  • filter
A

*filter

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13
Q

Enlargement of the IVC, with subsequent enlargement of the hepatic veins, is seen in cases of:

  • right sided heart failure
  • left sided heart failure
  • Marfan syndrome
  • Budd-Chiari syndrome
A

*right sided heart failure

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14
Q

What veins join to form the IVC?

  • Iliac Veins
  • Iliac Arteries
  • Renal Veins
  • Renal Arteries
A

*Iliac veins

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15
Q

What are the largest tributaries to the IVC?

  • Renal Veins
  • Iliac Veins
  • Hepatic Veins
  • Superior Mesenteric Vein
A

*Hepatic veins

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16
Q

Which of the following statements about the IVC is not true?

  • respirations can affect the size of the IVC
  • the diameter of the IVC is variable
  • the IVC is located to the left of the abdominal aorta
  • the IVC is considered retroperitoneal in location
A

*the IVC is located to the left of the abdominal aorta

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17
Q

The most common tumor to invade the IVC is

  • islet cell carcinoma
  • nephroma
  • venous angioma
  • renal cell carcinoma
A

*renal cell carcinoma

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18
Q

What is an example of a high resistive vessel?

  • renal artery
  • aorta
  • hepatic artery
  • splenic artery
A

*aorta

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19
Q

The most common origin of pulmonary embolism arrives from the:

  • lower extremities
  • upper extremities
  • lungs
  • heart
A

*lower extremities

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20
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of complete IVC thrombosis?

  • back pain
  • elevated hematocrit
  • hypertension
  • hypotension
A

*back pain

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21
Q

What is the most common intraluminal pathology of the IVC?

  • renal cell carcinoma
  • thrombus
  • enlargment of the IVC
  • plaque
A

*thrombus

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22
Q

What is a difference in nonresitive and resisitive blood vessels?

  • nonresistive vessels provide constant profusion to organs
  • nonresistive vessels have little or no diastolic flow
  • resistive vessels provide constant profusion to organs
  • resistive vessels have high diastolic flow
A

*nonresistive vessels provide constant profusion to organs

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23
Q

This liver function test can be elevated due to a blockage of the ducts:

  • ALT
  • Alkaline Phosphatase
  • biliruben
  • AST
A

*biliruben

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24
Q

What is one of the common causes of fatty infiltrate of the liver?

  • intravenous drug use
  • over usage of tylenol
  • cirrhosis
  • pregnancy
A

*pregnancy

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25
Q

Which of the following is a sonographic finding of fatty infiltrate of the liver?

  • prominent portal vein
  • posterior enhancement
  • increase echogenicity
  • atrophy of affected lobes
A

*increase echogenicity

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26
Q

Inflammatory or infectious disease of the liver can also be called________________.

  • hepatitis
  • Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • cirrhosis
  • fatty infiltrate
A

*hepatitis

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27
Q

Hepatitis B can be spread:

  • tatoos
  • sputum
  • uninfected blood or plasma
  • through sexual contact
A

*through sexual contact

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28
Q

Sonographic appearance of acute hepatitis:

  • atrophy of the liver
  • attenuation
  • normal GB wall
  • extreme increase in echogencity
A

*attenuation

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29
Q

When is hepatitis considered chronic?

  • 3-6 months with acute hepatitis
  • 6-9 months with acute hepatitis
  • 12 months with acute hepatitis
  • 18 with acute hepatitis
A

*3-6 months with acute hepatitis

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30
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?

  • alcohol abuse
  • drug abuse
  • diabetes
  • hepatitis
A

*alcohol abuse

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31
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of chronic cirrhosis?

  • increase hematocrit
  • jaundice
  • weight gain
  • fever
A

*jaundice

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32
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the liver?

  • focal nodular hyperplasia
  • cavernous hemangioma
  • liver cysts
  • adenoma
A

*cavernous hemangioma

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33
Q

A 70-year old woman is seen for malaise and wasting. The clinician orders an abdominal ultrasound because of the patient’s history of colon cancer and elevated liver function tests. The sonographer notes multiple hyperechoic lesions within the liver and hepatomegaly. This is suggestive of:

  • angiosarcome
  • hemangioma
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
  • metastatic disease
A

*metastatic disease

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34
Q

A 45-year old man with a history of hepatitis is seen for ultrasound examintation of the abdomen. The sonographer identifies a 6 cm complex mass in the liver. This would be suspicious for which of the following tumors?

  • hemangioma
  • metastasis
  • cystademoma
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
A

*hepatocellular carcinoma

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35
Q

Which hepatic mass is closely associated with oral contraceptive use?

  • hamartoma
  • hypernephroma
  • hemangioma
  • adenoma
A

*adenoma

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36
Q

Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in which cavity?

  • Subphrenic space
  • Perirenal Space
  • Peritoneal cavity
  • Morison’s pouch
A

*Peritoneal cavity

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37
Q

The smallest lobe of the liver that lies anterior to the inferior vena cava; superior border is the ligamentum venosum is the:

  • left lobe
  • caudate lobe
  • middle lobe
  • right lobe
A

*caudate lobe

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38
Q

Echinococcal cysts have the highest incidence in countries in which:

  • sheep grazing is common
  • fishing is common
  • rock climbing is prevalent
  • poultry is abundant
A

*sheep grazing is common

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39
Q

What is the normal gallbladder wall measurement?

  • < 3mm
  • < 6mm
  • > 6mm
  • > 3mm
A

*< 3mm

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40
Q

What is the most common disease of the gallbladder?

  • cholecystitis
  • cholelithiasis
  • gallbladder carcinoma
  • porcelain GB
A

*cholelithiasis

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41
Q

Courvoisier’s gallbladder is associated with which of the following:

  • chronic diverticulitis
  • galbladder carcinoma
  • a pancreatic head mass
  • cholecystitis
A

*gallbladder carcinoma

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42
Q

What structures join to form the common bile duct?

  • common hepatic duct and cystic duct
  • common bile duct and cystic duct
  • common bile duct and hepatic ducts
  • right and left hepatic ducts
A

*common hepatic duct and cystic duct

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43
Q

The yellowish staining of the whites of the eyes and the skin secondary to a liver disorder or biliary obstruction is referred to as:

  • Jaundice
  • AIDS cholangitis
  • bilirubinemia
  • puritus
A

*jaundice

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44
Q

You have been asked to rule out the presence of choledocholithiasis. What are you looking for?

  • inflammation with thickening of the gallbladder wall
  • stones within the common bile duct
  • calcified gallbladder wall
  • contracted gallbladder filled with stones
A

*stones within the common bile duct

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45
Q

A 74 year old woman is seen with RUQ pain, jaundice, and nausea and vomiting. Ultrasound of the gallbladder reveals cholelithiasis. In addition, a 3 cm, cauliflower shaped mass is seen arising from a stalk within the gallbladder fundus. This is most suggestive of which of the following?

  • abscess
  • gallbladder perforation
  • gallbladder carcinoma
  • cholecystitis
A

*gallbladder carcinoma

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46
Q

Hartmann pouch involves which part of the gallbladder:

  • fundus
  • phrygian cap
  • neck
  • body
A

*neck

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47
Q

You suspect intrahepatic bile duct dilatation in a patient with right upper quadrant pain and tenderness. How can you differentiate the dilated bile ducts from intrahepatic veins?
A) dilated bile ducts demonstrate irregular, tortuous walls
B) bile ducts will not demonstrate flow with color Doppler
C) intrahepatic portal veins show increased through transmission compared to the dilated bile ducts
D) A and B

A

D) A and B

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48
Q

The primary role of the biliary system is

  • to produce bile
  • to form gallstones
  • to aid in digestion by storing bile
  • to secrete hormones
A

*to aid in digestion by storing bile

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49
Q

The most common sign for carcinoma of the gallbladder is:

  • irregular immobile mass that contains low-intensity echoes within the gallbladder
  • mass changing with position changes
  • shadowing posterior to the gallbladder
  • gallbladder wall thickening
A

*irregular immobile mass that contains low-intensity echoes within the gallbladder

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50
Q

Normal diameter for the common bile duct is _________________.

  • 3 mm
  • 10 mm
  • 1 mm
  • 6 mm
A

*6mm

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51
Q

WES sign denotes:

  • a gallbaldder filled with cholelithiasis
  • the presence of a gallstone lodged in the cystic duct
  • the sonographic sign of a porcelain gallbladder
  • multiple biliary stones and biliary dilatation
A

*a gallbladder filled with cholelithiasis

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52
Q

What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?

  • calculus obstruction of the gallbladder neck or cystic duct
  • gallstone lodged in the fundus of the gallbladder
  • hepatitis
  • pancreatitits
A

*calculus obstruction of the gallbladder neck or cystic duct

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53
Q

A renal ultrasound is ordered for a patient in ICU with renal failure, TPN and a long history of hospitalization. During imaging of the right kidney, the sonographer notices that the gallbladder contains low-level echoes that layer and are gravity dependent. This is most consistent with which of the following?

  • abscess
  • cholecystitis
  • sludge
  • cholelithiasis
A

*sludge

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54
Q

Focal tenderness over the gallbladder with probe pressure describes:

  • hydrops sign
  • courvoisier sign
  • murphy sign
  • strawberry sign
A

*murphy sign

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55
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of acute pancreatitis?

  • weight loss
  • weight gain
  • abdominal pain
  • fatigue
A

*abdominal pain

56
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the pancreas?

  • psuedocyst
  • adenocarcinoma
  • cystadenocarcinoma
  • cystadenoma
A

*adenocarcinoma

57
Q

What is the most common splenic pathology?

  • splenic rupture
  • splenic cysts
  • splenomegaly
  • splenic infarct
A

*splenomegaly

58
Q

What is a symptom of splenic infarct?

  • fatigue
  • dull ache
  • acute pain
  • nausea
A

*acute pain

59
Q

You are scanning a 52 year old male with a history of alcohol abuse. Ultrasound findings include a hyperechoic mass in the head of the pancreas, dilaition of the pancreatic and common bile duct, diffuse calcification within the pancreas. Which of the following conditions is most likely present?

  • acute pancreatitis
  • chronic pancreatitis
  • adenocarcinoma
  • cystadenomcarcinoma
A

*chronic pancreatitis

60
Q

You have a patient who is scheduled for pancreatic surgery following ultrasound and CT evaluation. What is the surgical procedure of choice for pancreatic cancer?

  • Whipple procedure
  • pancreatic transplant
  • Wirsung procedure
  • cholecystectomy and pancreatectomy
A

*Whipple procedure

61
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of pancreatic cancer?

  • smoking
  • diabetes
  • chronic pancreatitis
  • all of the above
A

*all of the above

62
Q

You have been asked to rule out pseudocyst formation in a patient with acute pancreatitis. What is the ultrasound appearance of a pancreatic pseudocyst?

  • cyst without internal echoes
  • cyst with low-level echoes
  • cyst with internal septations
  • well defined wall
  • all of the above
A

*all of the above

63
Q

Part of your routine protocol for pancreatic imaging is to comment on the echogenicity of the organ. What is the normal echogenicity of the normal pancreas?

  • either isoechoic or hyperechoic compared to the liver
  • always hypoechoic compared to the liver
  • always hyperechoic compared to the liver
  • always isoechoic compared to the liver
A

*either isoechoic or hyperechoic compared to the liver

64
Q

The posterior border of the body and tail of the pancreas is the?

  • superior mesenteric artery
  • splenic artery
  • splenic vein
  • superior mesenteric vein
A

*splenic vein

65
Q

What is an early sonographic appearance of acute pancreatitis?

  • normal
  • calcifications within the gland
  • hyperechoic glandular echotexture
  • pancreatis psuedocyst
A

*normal

66
Q

Evaluation of the pancreas is a technical challenge to the sonographer due to:

  • its anterior position related to the IVC
  • its retroperitoneal location and posterior position to the stomach
  • its periotneal location and posterior position to the stomach
  • its retroperitoneal location and anterior position to the stomach
A

*its retroperitoneal location and posterior position to the stomach

67
Q

The most common location of adenocarcinoma of the pancreas is within the:

  • tail
  • head
  • body
  • neck
A

*head

68
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

  • obstruction of the pancreatic duct by biliary calculi
  • pancreatic divisum
  • alcohol abuse
  • trauma
A

*obstruction of the pancreatic duct by biliary calculi

69
Q

A 25 year old female patient presents to the ultrasound department for a complete abdominal ultrasound. She complains of right lower quadrant pain and nausea. The right upper abdomen appears normal. A small mass is noted in the area of the splenic hilum. This mass appears isoechoic to the spleen. What does this most likely represent?

  • Neuroblastoma
  • pancreatic cystadenoma
  • splenic hemangioma
  • accessory spleen
A

*accessory spleen

70
Q

You are performing an ultrasound study on a patient with malignant melanoma. Your ultrasound findings reveal multiple hyperechoic masses within the spleen. This most likely represents:

  • histoplasmosis
  • tuberculosis
  • pseudocyst
  • metastasis
A

*metastasis

71
Q

The normal adult spleen measures:

  • 5-8 cm
  • 8-13 cm
  • 10-15 cm
  • none of the above
A

*8-13 cm

72
Q

A 14 year old male patient presents to the ultrasound department after falling from his bicycle. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a complex appearing mass wihtin the spleen. this most likely represents:

  • splenic infarct
  • splenic hematoma
  • splenic hemagioma
  • splenic granuloma
A

*splenic hematoma

73
Q

A 35 year old male patient presents to the ultrasound department for an abdominal ultrasound with a history of abdominal pain and histoplasmosis. What are you more likely to identify within the spleen?

  • multiple hemagiomas
  • multiple histomas
  • multiple metastatic lesions
  • multiple granulomas
A

*multiple granulomas

74
Q

A complex cyst that results from the parasitic infestation of the spleen by a tapeworm is the:

  • candidiasis
  • hydatid cyst
  • bacterial endocarditis cyst
  • choledochal cyst
A

*hydatid cyst

75
Q

An area within the spleen that has become necrotic because of a lack of oxygen is referred to as a:

  • splenic hemangioma
  • granuloms
  • splenic infarct
  • splenic hematoma
A

*splenic infarct

76
Q

A 48 year old male patient with a history of severe, sudden onset of left upper quadrant pain without trauma presents to the ultrasound department for a sonogram of the spleen. You visualize a wedge-shaped, hypoechoic area within the spleen. This most likely represents a:

  • splenic infarct
  • splenic metastasis
  • splenic hematoma
  • splenic hemangioma
A

*splenic infarct

77
Q

What is the cause of adrenal hemorrhage in the neonate?

  • large adrenal gland size
  • blunt force trauma
  • trauma during birth
  • hydronephrosis
A

*trauma during birth

78
Q

What is a highly malignant tumor of the adrenal gland occuring in children?

  • Neuroblastoma
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Wilm’s
  • Nephroblastoma
A

*Neuroblastoma

79
Q

The most common sonographic appearance of a pheochromocytoma is a/an:

  • anechoic mass
  • hyperechoic mass
  • complex mass
  • hypoechoic mass
A

*hyperechoic mass

80
Q

Upon sonographic examination of the right upper quadrant in a 32 year old female patient complaining of generalized abdominal pain, you visualize an anechoic mass with posterior enhancement superior and medial upper pole of the right kidney. This most likely represents a/an:

  • pheochromocytoma
  • neuroblastoma
  • adrenal cyst
  • adrenal metastatic lesion
A

*adrenal cyst

81
Q

Which of the following hormones are responsible for the “flight-or-fight” response?

  • epinephrine and norepinephrine
  • cortisol and aldosterone
  • adrenocorticotropic hormone and aldosterone
  • cortisol and androgens
A

*epinephrine and norepinephrine

82
Q

Which of the following is a normal resistive index in a normal adult kidney?

  • 0.69
  • 0.72
  • 0.81
  • 1.0
A

*0.69

83
Q

The syndrome associated with hypertension, hyperglycemia, obesity, and an adrenal mass is:

  • Edward’s syndrome
  • Hirschprung syndrome
  • Juliet syndrome
  • Cushing syndrome
A

*Cushing syndrome

84
Q

The adrenal mass often associated with uncontrollable hypertension, tachycardia, and tremors is the:

  • neuroblastoma
  • oncocytoma
  • adrenal hematoma
  • pheochromocytoma
A

*pheochromocytoma

85
Q

All of the following are true statements about the adrenal glands except:

  • the right adrenal gland is located medial to the right lobe of the liver
  • the left adrenal gland is located lateral to the upper pole of the left kidney
  • the adrenal glands play an important role in blood pressure regulation
  • the adrenal glands are easily identifed in the fetus
A

*the left adrenal gland is located lateral to the upper pole of the left kidney

86
Q

All of the following are true statements about the adrenal glands except:

  • the right adrenal gland is located medial to the right lobe of the liver
  • the left adrenal gland is located lateral to the upper pole of the left kidney
  • the adrenal glands play an important role in blood pressure regulation
  • the adrenal glands are easily identifed in the fetus
A

*the left adrenal gland is located lateral to the upper pole of the left kidney

87
Q

During routine surveillance of hte urinary bladder, you detect the presence of periodic ureteral “jets.” This is a sign of:

  • ureteral stone
  • transitional cell carcinoma
  • normality
  • ureteral spasm
A

*normality

88
Q

Which of the following describes the normal course of the left renal vein?

  • retroaortic
  • between the superior mesenteric aretery and the aorta
  • anterior to the superior mesenteric artery and infreior vena cava
  • between the superior mesenteric aretery and the splenic vein
A

*between the superior mesenteric aretery and the aorta

89
Q

What is the indication for a Doppler renal study to rule out renal artery stenosis?

  • hematuria
  • anemia, progressive azotemia and polyuria
  • uncontrolled hypertension
  • increased serum creatinine
A

*uncontrolled hypertension

90
Q

A horseshoe kidney is fused at:

  • the lower poles
  • the renal hilum
  • one upper pole to the opposite lower pole
  • the upper poles
A

*the lower poles

91
Q

A renal ultrasound had been ordered on 26 year old pregnant female that presents with urinary urgency. Sonographically her distended bladder wall measures 6mm and has a polypoid appearance. What is the best diagnosis?

  • cystitis
  • transitional cell carcinoma
  • papiloma
  • normal appearing bladder
A

*cystitis

92
Q

How are cross-fused kidneys joined?

  • At the lower poles
  • At the upper poles
  • Lower pole of the ectopic kidney to upper pole of normal placed kidney
  • Upper pole of the ectopic kidney to the lower pole of the normal placed kidney
A

*Upper pole of the ectopic kidney to the lower pole of the normal placed kidney

93
Q

What is the most common cause of scrotal pain in adults?

  • epididymo-orchitis
  • epididymitis
  • torsion
  • trauma
A

*epididymo-orchitis

94
Q

What are the sonographic findings in the early stages of testicular torsion?

  • normal blood flow bilaterally
  • affected testicle will be avascular
  • increase vascularity in affected testicle
  • torsion is not verified with sonography
A

*affected testicle will be avascular

95
Q

What are the sonographic findings in the late stages of testicular torsion?

  • normal appearance
  • inhomogeneous appearance
  • homogeneous appearance
  • swollen hypoechoic testicle
A

*inhomogeneous appearance

96
Q

True or False: Ultrasound can reliably differentiate between a spermatocele and an epididymal cyst.

A

*False

97
Q

What prostate zone is most commonly associated with cancer and prostatitis?

  • transition zone
  • periurethral zone
  • peripheral zone
  • central zone
A

*peripheral zone

98
Q

Enlargement of the prostate in older men is most often caused by:

  • prostate cancer
  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • prostatitis
  • bengin prostatic hypertrophy
A

*bengin prostatic hypertrophy

99
Q

A large complex hydrocele is most commonly associated with which of the following?

  • orchitis
  • Varicocele
  • Epididymal cyst
  • Seminoma
A

*orchitis

100
Q

A common cyst most often seen in the head of the epididymis that contains noviable sperm is the:

  • seminoma
  • spermatocele
  • epididymal cyst
  • tunica albunginea cyst
A

*spermatocele

101
Q

A linear stripe of variable thickness and echogenicity running through the testicle in a craniocaudal direction represents the:

  • Dartos muscle
  • Mediastinum testis
  • Epithelial layer
  • Cowper’s fascia
A

*Mediastinum testis

102
Q

What diagnostic information can an ultrasound of the scrotum provide?

  • Determine malignancy
  • intratesticular vs extratesticular mass
  • Determine benign mass
  • Ultrasound is not useful in testicular imaging
A

*intratesticular vs extratesticular mass

103
Q 
A 7 year old boy presents to the emergency department with acute testicular pain localized to the superior pole of his right testis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*testicular torsion
*yolk sac tumor
*torsion of the testicular appendage
hydrocele
A

*torsion of the testicular appendage

104
Q

Clinical findings of acute scrotal pain and swelling are suggestive of:

  • torsion
  • A neoplasm
  • Epididymitis
  • Orchitis
A

*torsion

105
Q

What is the most common thyroid mass?

  • complex cyst
  • adenoma
  • Goiter
  • simple cyst
A

*adenoma

106
Q

List three clinical symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

A

bulging eyes, weight loss, increased bowel movements

107
Q

List three clinical symptoms of hypothyroidism.

A

difficulty losing weight, heavy menstrual periods, increased weight gain

108
Q

How is thyroid cancer diagnosed?

  • Biopsy
  • sonography
  • CT scan
  • nuclear medicine
A
  • Biopsy
109
Q

The differential diagnosis for thyroiditis includes all of the following except:

  • Multinodular goiter
  • Goiter
  • Hemorrhagic cyst
  • Abscess
A

*Hemorrhagic cyst

110
Q

Which abnormality is associated with the sonographic findings of a thyroid inferno?

  • Cervial lymphadenopathy
  • Graves disease
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • Hyperparathyroidism
A

*Graves disease

111
Q

A 35 year old female presents for a thyroid ultrasound. Her symptoms include fatigue, weight loss, intolerance to heat, and exophthalmia. What is her most likely diagnosis?

  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Graves’s disease
  • Goiter
A

*Hyperthyroidism

112
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

  • papillary cacinoma
  • Grave’s disease
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • parathyroid adenoma
A

*Hashimoto thyroiditis

113
Q

The most common feature of a thyroid adenoma is:

  • Inhomogeneous properties
  • Hemorrhage
  • Peripheral sonolucent halo
  • Diffuse echogenicity
A

*Peripheral sonolucent halo

114
Q

A patient with clinical hyperthyroidism is referred for sonogram evaluation of an enlarged thyroid. The sonogram reveals a diffusely hypoechoic thyroid texture and lobulated contour. No discreet nodules are seen, but color-flow Doppler in the thyroid reveals dramatic flow in both systole and diastole. These findings are suggestive of:

  • Papillary cancer
  • Grave’s disease
  • Inflammatory lymph node
  • Benign thyroid nodule
A

*Grave’s disease

115
Q

Which of the following is not a sonographic applications for the thyroid gland?

  • evaluate post thyroid surgery
  • To determine malignancy
  • evaluate post radiation treatment
  • evaluate for palpable neck mass
A

*To determine malignancy

116
Q

Which of the following is not an indications for a renal ultrasound?

  • Hypertension
  • Hematuria
  • Flank pain
  • Palpable abdominal mass
A

*Palpable abdominal mass

117
Q

What is the most common benign renal tumor?

  • lipoma
  • angiomyolipoma
  • adenoma
  • renal cell carcinoma
A

*adenoma

118
Q

_______ is the appearance of blood cells in urine.

  • Hematuria
  • Proteinuria
  • Hematocrit
  • Albuminuria
A

*Hematuria

119
Q

If scanning a patient with hydronephrosis and an extremely full bladder what should the sonographer do?

  • Take no images of the hydronephrosis
  • Take the images of the bladder and release them
  • Have them void and rescan
  • Take no images of the bladder
A

*Have them void and rescan

120
Q

What is THE USUAL cause of renal infarction?

  • Renal vein obstruction
  • Ureter obstruction
  • Urethra obstruction
  • Renal artery obstruction
A

*Renal artery obstruction

121
Q

Where is the kidney placed for a renal transplant?

  • Right lower quadrant
  • Right upper quadrant
  • Left upper quadrant
  • Left lower quadrant
A

*Right lower quadrant

122
Q

What is a post-op complication of renal transplant surgery usually occuring in the first two weeks caused by an anastimosis leak?

  • Hematoma
  • Abscess
  • Lymphocele
  • Urinoma
A

*Urinoma

123
Q

A 25-year old patient with right flank pain, nausea, and vomiting is seen for a renal ultrasound. The ultrasound reveals large echogenic foci with posterior acoustic shadowing in the kidney. The calyces appear to be dilated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • TCC
  • hematoma
  • oncocytoma
  • calculi
A

*calculi

124
Q

Which malignant tumor is most common in children aged 2-5?

  • renal lymphoma
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • renal hamartoma
  • Wilm’s tumor
A

*Wilm’s tumor

125
Q

What anomaly is a deposition of a moderate amount of fat in the renal sinus which causes the appearance of enlarged sinus with increased echogenicity?

  • junctional parenchymal defect
  • duplicated collecting system
  • sinus lipomatosis
  • dromedary hump
A

*sinus lipomatosis

126
Q

The normal adult kidney should measure _______________________.

  • 15-19 cm
  • 8-13 cm
  • 9-12 cm
  • 13-15 cm
A

*9-12cm

127
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of ureteropelvic junction obstruction?

  • dilated ureter and collecting system to the level of the urinary bladder
  • pelvicaliectasis to the level of the junction of the renal pelvis and ureter
  • dilated ureter with normal intrarenal collecting sytem
  • pelvocaliectasis to the level of the distal ureter
A

*pelvicaliectasis to the level of the junction of the renal pelvis and ureter

128
Q

A triangular echogenic area in the upper pole of the renal parenchyma describes what normal variant?

  • junctional parenchymal defect
  • duplicated collecting system
  • fetal lobulation
  • dromedary hump
A

*junctional parenchymal defect

129
Q

You are scanning a 69 year old male with hematuria. Your ultrasound findings include right-sided hydronephrosis and a mass within the urinary bladder. Which of the following tumors most commonly occurs within the urinary bladder?

  • renal hamartoma
  • transitional cell carcinoma
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • renal lyphoma
A

*transitional cell carcinoma

130
Q

You have detected compensatory hypertrophy of the right kidney in a 35 year old male. This finding is associated with which of the following?

  • renal agenesis
  • renal hypoplasia
  • nephrectomy
  • all of the above
A

*all of the above

131
Q

In which sonographic image do you measure the longest dimension of the kidney?

  • longitudinal medial kidney
  • longitudinal mid kidney
  • transverse mid kidney
  • longitudinal lateral kidney
A

*longitudinal mid kidney

132
Q

Which of the following is not considered an extrinsic cause of hydronephrosis?

  • pregnancy
  • neurogenic bladder
  • uterine leiomyoma
  • ureteral stricture
A

*ureteral stricture

133
Q

All of the following are clinical findings of acute renal failure except:

  • decreased BUN and creatinine
  • oliguria
  • hypertension
  • hematuria
A

*decreased BUN and creatinine

134
Q

A 32 year old patient with severe left flank pain and hematuria is seen for a renal ultrasound. The ultrasound reveals a dilated ureter, and no ureteral jet is seen on the left side. The right kidney appears normal, and the left renal collecting system is dilated. This is most consistent with:

  • bladder hematoma
  • ureteral stone
  • kidney stone
  • bladder stone
A

*ureteral stone

135
Q

A 24 year old woman with a 12 year history of recurring urinary tract infections arrives at the ultrasound department needing a renal sonogram. She has hypertension, a high fever, nausea, vomiting and painful urination. The laboratory findings include bacteriuria, proteinuria, and increased BUN and creatinine levels. Sonographically, the right kidney appears normal, but the left renal parenchyma appears narrowed and has focal areas of increased echogenicity. In addition, the left kidney measures abnormally small and appears misshapen and its borders are difficult to visualize. What might be the cause of these sonographic findings?

  • acute pyelonephritis
  • renal artery stenosis
  • emphysematous pyelonephritis
  • chronic pyelonephritis
A

*chronic pyelonephritis

Abdominal Final (1 decks)

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