6. Neuro (Head and Neck) Flashcards

- Temporal bones, Ear, Skull base, Sinuses, Mouth, Thyroid, Parathyroid, Suprahyoid Soft Tissue Neck, SCC, Infrahyoid Soft Tissue Neck, Orbit)

1
Q

Petrous Apex - anatomic variants (3)

A

Asymmetric marrow,
Cephaloceles
Variant anatomy of the carotid artery

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2
Q

Asymmetric marrow (3)

A

Typically petrous apex contains significant fat, closely following the scalp and orbital fat (T1 and T2 bright).
Asymmetry can mimic infiltrative process.
Could also overlook a T1 bright pathology (cholesterol granuloma) thinking it’s fat.
Key is to use STIR or fat sat.

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3
Q

Cephalocele (4)

A

herniation of CNS content through a defect in the cranium.
In the petrous apex, they don’t contain brain tissue and represent cystic expansion and herniation of the posterolateral portion of Meckel’s cave into the superiomedial aspec of the petrous apex.
Usually unilateral and classically described as “Smoothly marginated lobulated cystic expansion of the petrous apex”

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4
Q

Variant anatomy of the carotid artery (3)

A

2 main variants are persistent stapedal artery and aberrant internal carotid.
DONT biopsy them.
They can cause pulsatile tinnitus.

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5
Q

Inflammatory lesions of the Petrous apex (4)

A

Cholesterol Granuloma
Cholesteatoma
Apical petrositis.
Grandenigo syndrome

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6
Q

Cholesterol granuloma (7)

A

commonest primary petrous apex lesion.
Likely due to obstruction of the air cell, with repeated cycles of haemorrhage and inflammation, leading to expansion and bone remodelling.
Most common symptom is hearing loss.
CT: Margins sharply defined.
MRI: T1 and T2 bright, with T2 dark haemosiderin rim and faint peripheral enhancement.
No diffusion restriction.
Faster growing ones need surgery.

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7
Q

Cholesteatoma (4)

A

Epidermoid (ectopic epithelial tissue).
They are congenital in the petrous apex.
Slow growing, with bony change similar to cholesterol granuloma.
MRI is T1 DARK, T2 bright, restricts diffusion.

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8
Q

Apical petrositis (9)

A

Infection of petrous apex is a rare complication of infectious otomastoiditis.
Has complications if it progresses, including:
- osteomyelitis of skull base,
- ICA Vasospasm,
- subdural empyema,
- CVST,
- tempral lobe stroke and
- meningitis.
Can present as primary process in kids.
In adults, usually in setting of chronic otomastoiditis or recurrent mastoid surgery.

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9
Q

Grandenigo syndrome (5)

A

Complication of apical petrositis, when Dorello’s canal (CN 6) is involved.
Causes lateral rectus palsy.
Classic triad of:
- Otomastoiditis
- Face pain (trigeminal neuralgia)
- Lateral rectus palsy

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10
Q

Petrous apex tumours (2)

A

Endolymphatic sac tumour
Paraganglioma

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11
Q

Endolymphatic sac tumour (5)

A

rare tumour of the endolymphatic sac and duct.
Most are sporadic, but also associated with VHL.
Usually grow into the CPA.
Internal amorphous calcifications on CT.
T2 bright with intense enhancement.
Very vascular, often with flow voids and tumour blush on angiography.

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12
Q

Paraganglioma (5)

A

Paraganglioma of the jugular fossa (glomus jugulare or jugulotmypanic tumours) can invade the occupital bone and adjacent petrous apex.
Hereditary in 40%, with multiple tumours.
Most commonly presents with voice hoarseness, from vagal nerve compression.
Very vascular and enhance avidly with “salt and pepper” appearance on post contrast MRI with flow voids.
FDG avid.

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13
Q

Large vestibuar aqueduct syndrome (6)

A

Vestibular aqueduct is a bony canal that connects the vestibule (inner ear) with the endolymohatic sac.
When it’s enlarged (>1.5cm), associated with sensorineural hearing loss.
This syndrome associated with absence of bony modiolus in more than 90%.
Result of failure of endolymohatic sac to resorb endolymph, leading to endolymphatic hydrops and dilatation.
Commonest cause of congenital sensorineural hearing loss.
Usually bilateral.
Associated with cochlear deformity

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14
Q

Labyrinthitis (2)

A

Inflammation of the membranous labyrinth, most commonly due to viral infection.
Cochlea and semicircular canals enhance on T1 post contrast

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15
Q

Labyrinthitis Ossificans (3)

A

Sequella of prior infection, usually meningitis.
Seen in kids 2-18 months.
CT: ossification of the membranous labyrinth.
Causes sensorineural hearing loss.

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16
Q

Otosclerosis (5)

A

Bone becomes more lytic.
Usually the cause of conductive hearing loss in a female adult.
2 kinds:
Fenestral: Bony resorption anterior to the oval window, at the fussula ante fenestram. Of not addressed, the footplate will fuse to the oval window.
Retro-fenestral: more severe form which has progressed to have demineralisation around the cochlea. Usually has sensorineural component and is usually bilateral and symmetric

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17
Q

Otitis media (3)

A

Common childhood disease, effusion and infection of the middle ear.
More common in children and Downs (more horizontal eustachian tube).
Chronic if fluid persisting for >6 weeks.

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18
Q

Otitis media complications (5)

A

Coalescent mastoiditis - erosion of the mastoid space with or without intramastoid abscess.
Facial nerve palsy - Secodnary to inflammation of the tympanic segment
Dural sinus thrombosis - Adjacent inflammation may cause thrombophlebitis or thrombosis of the sinus. This itself leads to other complications (venous infarct, Otitic hydrocephalus due to poor CSF resorption)
Meningitis and labyrinthitis.

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19
Q

Cholesteatoma (3)

A

Exfoliated skin debris growing in the wrong place, creating a ball of inflammation which damages the temporal bone and ossicles.
2 parts to the eardrum, pars flaccida (flaccid) and pars tensa (more rigid, inferior).
A “hole” with some inflammation or infection involving the pars flaccida can cause a cholesteatoma.

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20
Q

Cholesteatoma order of destruction (3)

A

The scutum,
The ossicles (long process of incus)
The lateral segment of the semi-circular canal

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21
Q

Pars flaccida vs Pars tensa cholesteatoma (6)

A

Pars flaccida
- Acquired is more common, typically involving pars flaccida. Can grow into Prissak’s space.
- Scutum is eroded early, considered specific sign of acquired cholesteatoma.
- Malleus is displaced medially.
- Long process of incus is most common segment of ossicular chain to be eroded.
- Fistula to semi-circular canal most commonly involves lateral segment
Pars tensa
- Inner ear structures are involved earleir and more often.
- Less common than flaccida type

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22
Q

Labyrinthine fistula (3)

A

Complication of cholesteatoma, can also be congenital or iatrogenic.
Bony defect between the inner ear and tympanic cavity.
Lateral semicircular canal is most often involved.

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23
Q

Relevant anatomy for cholesteatoma (6)

A

Coronal view of temporal bone:
Tympanic membrane usually too thin to see on CT.
Prussak’s space: space between incus and the lateral temporal bone. Most common location of pars flaccida Cholesteatoma. Incus is most commonly eroded bone.
Scutum is the first bone eroded by pars flaccida cholesteatoma.
Axial view:
Lateral portion of semicircular canal, first part the cholesteatoma will invade if it invades the semicircular canal

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24
Q

Superior semicircular canal dehiscence (2)

A

Due to longstanding ICP.
Causes “noise induced vertigo” or “Tulio’s phenomenon”

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25
Q

Necrotising Otitis Externa (2)

A

Aggressive infection, causing swollen external auditory canal tissues, with small abscesses and adjacent bony destruction.
Usually diabetic. Usually pseudomonas.

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26
Q

Pagets of skull base (6)

A

Osteolysis - well defined large radiolucent region, favouring frontal and occipital bones.
Inner table is affected more than outer table.
“Osteolysis circumscripta”
Complications
- Deafness is most common.
- Cranial nerve paresis
- Basilar invagination
- Secondary (high grade) osteosarcoma

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26
Q

Facial nerve trivia (5)

A

Cisternal, canalicular and labyrinthine segments should NOT enhance. The remainder will enhance, due to the perineural venous plexus.
Abnormal enhancement caused by Bell’s Palsy, Lyme’s, Ramsay hunt and cancer
Commonly damaged by transverse temporal bone fractures, more than longitudinal

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27
Q

Chordoma and chondrosarcoma (3)

A

Can also affect skull base.
Chordoma is midline.
Chondrosarcoma is off midline

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28
Q

Fibrous dysplasia (4)

A

Ground glass lesion, usually in younger person (30s) rather than pagets (80s).
Classically fibrous dysplasia of the skull spares the otic capsule.
McCune Albright syndrome: Multifocal fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots and precocious puberty.

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29
Q

Juvenile Nasal Angiofibroma (4)

A

Male teenager with nosebleeds. Obstruction is a common symptom.
Mass centered on the sphenopalatine foramen.
Expansion of the pterygopalatine fossa.
Very vascular, angiogram will blush.
Primary vascular supply from ascending pharyngeal artery and/or internal maxillary artery

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30
Q

Antrochoanal polyp (6)

A

Seen in 30-40s, with nasal congestion and obstructive symptoms.
Arises within the maxillary sinuses and passes through and enlarges the sinus ostium (or accessory ostium).
“Widening of the maxillary ostium”.
No associated bony enlargement of the sinus.
Polyp extends into the nasopharynx.
Basically a large inflammatory polyp with a thin stalk arising from the maxillary sinus.

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31
Q

Inverting papilloma (5)

A

Uncommon tumour with distinctive imaging features.
Classic location is lateral wall of the nasal cavity, most frequently related to the middle nasal turbinate.
Impaired maxillary drainage is expected.
Focal hyperostosis at the tumour origin.
MRI: “cerebriform pattern”, sort of looks like brain on T1 and T2.
10% harbour a squamous cell cancer.

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32
Q

Esthesioneuroblastoma (4)

A

Neuroblastoma of olfactory cells, starts at cribriform plate.
Classically dubbbell appearance, growth into the skull and down into sinuses, waist at the cribriform plate.
Often cysts in the mass.
Octreotide scan positive, as it’s neural crest origin.

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33
Q

Squamous cell/SNUC (6)

A

Squamous is the most common head and neck cancer.
Maxillary antrum is most common location.
Highly cellular, and therefore low on T2.
Relatively little enhancement compared to other sinus masses.
SNUC (undifferentiated squamous cell) is more aggressive version of regular squamous cell cancer. Massive and seen more in the ethmoid air cells.

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34
Q

Epistaxis (5)

A

Usually idiopathic, can be iatrogenic.
Most common location is anterior septal area (Kiesselbach plexus), but because these are anterior they tend to be easier to manually compress.
Posterior ones are less common but tend to be the ones that bleed uncontrollably and need angio.
Most cases are given a trial of nasal packing before IR.
Main supply to the posterior nose is the sphenopalatine artery (terminal internal maxillary artery), tends to be first target.
Variant anastamosis between ECA ad ophthalmic artery is important, don’t want to embolise the eye.

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35
Q

Floor of mouth dermoid/epidermoid (2)

A

“Sack of marbles” - fluid sac with globules of fat.
Typically midline

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36
Q

Ranula (4)

A

Mucous retention cyst.
Typically lateral.
Arise from sublingual gland/space.
“plunging” once it’s under the myelohyoid muscle.

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37
Q

Torus palatinus (3)

A

Normal variant. Bony exostosis that comes off hard palate in midline.
Classic Hx of dentures not staying in

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38
Q

Sialolithiasis (4)

A

Stones in salivary ducts.
Most comonly in the submandubilar gland (wharton’s).
Can lead to infection (Sialadenitis)
Chronic obstruction can lead to fatty atrophy of the gland.

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39
Q

Odontogenic infection (5)

A

Can be dental or peridontal in origin.
Infection is more common from an extracted tooth than an abscess involving intact tooth.
Attachment of the myelohyoid muscle to the myelohyoid ridge dictates spread of infection to the sublingual and submandibular spaces - above the myelohyoid line (anterior submandibular teeth) goes to sublingual space, below the myelohyoid line (second and third molars) goes to the submandibular space.
Odontogenic abscess is commonest masticator space “mass” in adults.

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40
Q

Ludwig’s angina (2)

A

Agressive cellulitis in the floor of the mouth, gas forming.
Most cases start with orthodontic infection.

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41
Q

Osteonecrosis of the mandible (3)

A

Related to prior radiation, licking radium paint brush, or bisphosphonate treatment.

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42
Q

Cancer (mouth) (3)

A

Squamous cell cancer is most common.
Older - smoking and drinking. Younger - HPV.
HPV related SCCs tend to present with large, necrotic, level 2a nodes (NOT a brachial cleft cyst).

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43
Q

Thyroglossal duct cyst (3)

A

Can occur anywhere between the foramen cecum (base of tongue) and thyroid gland.
Usually found in midline at or above the hyoid.
Looks like thin walled cyst.

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44
Q

Thyroid anatomy (4)

A

Butterfly shaped gland with 2 lobes, connected by an isthmus.
Descends from the foramen cecum at anterior midline base of the tongue, along the thyroglossal duct.
Posterior nodular extension of the thyroid (Zuckerkandl tubercle) helps give a location of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (medial to it)

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45
Q

Thyroid nodules (4)

A

Usually seen on US. Very common and almost never cancer.
Suspicious features
- more solid
- calcifications (microcalcifications are a buzzword for papillary thyroid cancer)
Comet tail artefact is seen in colloid nodules.
Cold nodules on I-123 scans are 15% malignancy risk.

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46
Q

Thyroglossal duct cyst (5)

A

Can occur anywhere between foramen cecum (base of tongue) and the thyroid gland.
They are usually found in the midline at above the hyoid.
Looks like a thin walled cyst.
Can get infected.
Can rarely have a papillary thyroid cancer (if you cancer (if you see an enhancing nodule)

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47
Q

Ectopic and lingual thyroid (5)

A

Similar to thyroglossal duct cyst, found anywhere from base of tongue to central neck.
Most common location (90%) is the tongue base (lingual thryroid).
Looks hyperdense due to iodine content (just like normal thyroid gland).
Sometimes the actual thyroid can be absent.
3% risk of malignant transformation.

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48
Q

Goitre (4)

A

Thyroid is too big.
Low iodine in developing world, multinodular goitre or graves in the West.
Can compress the oesophagus or trachea.
Often asymmetric, one lobe bigger than the other

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49
Q

Graves (5)

A

Autoimmune disease causing hyperthyroidism (most common cause in West).
Primary from an antibody directed at the TSH receptor.
Actual TSH level is low.
Gland will be enlarged and hot on doppler.
- Graves orbitopathy: Spares tendon insertions, doesn’t hurt unlike pseudotumour. Increased intra-orbital fat.
- Nuclear medicine: Increased uptake of I-123 by usually 50-80%. Visualisation of pyramidal lobe is accentuated.

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50
Q

Hashimotos (4)

A

Commonest cause of goitrous hypothyroidism in the US.
Autoimmune disease causing hyper, then hypothyroidism as the gland burns out.
Increased risk of primary thyroid lymphoma.
Associated with anti-TPO and anti-thyroidglobulin antibodies.
Ultrasound: heterogenous giraffe skin appearance, or uniform hyperechoic nodules, actually regenerative nodules.

51
Q

Level 6 “Delphian” nodes (3)

A

Nodes around the thyroid in the front of the neck.
Can commonly see them enlarged with Hashimotos.
On multiple choice tests, a sick looking level 6 node is a laryngeal cancer met.

52
Q

Subacute Thyroiditis/DeQuervains Thyroiditis (5)

A

Female with painful thyroud after URTI.
Similar subtyoe in pregnant women, typically painless.
Hyperthyroidism, then hypothyroidism.
After the URTI, the gland recovers to normal.
Radiotracer uptake is decreased during the acute phase.

53
Q

Reidel’s thyroiditis (6)

A

IgG4 associated disease.
Seen in women in their 40-70s.
Thyroid is replaced by fibrous tissue and diffusely enlarges, causing compression of adjacent structures (dysphagia, stridor, vocal cord palsy).
US: decreases vascularity.
Uptake scan: decreased values.
MRI is dark on all sequences.

54
Q

Acute suppurative thyroditis. (3)

A

Actual bacterial infection of the thyroid.
Possible to develop thyroid abscess in this situation.
Infection in kids may start in a 4th branchial cleft anomaly (usually on the left), travel via a pyriform fistula and then infect the thyroid.

55
Q

Colloid nodules (5)

A

Super common, suspcious features include:
- microcalcifications
- increased vascularity
- solid size >1.5cm
- cold on nuclear uptake scan
Comet artefact is a buzzword.

56
Q

Thyroid adenoma (3)

A

Look like solid colloid nodules on US.
Can be hyperfunctioning (hot on uptake scan).
Usually if it’s hyperfunctioning, background thyroid is colder than normal.

57
Q

Thyroid cancer (5)

A

4 main subtypes
- Papillary
- Follicular
- Medullary
- Anaplastic
- Hurthle cell (variant of follicular)

58
Q

Papillary thyroid cancer (4)

A

Commonest.
“Microcalcifications” is buzzword and key finding in cancer and nodes.
Mets via lymphatics.
Excellent prognosis overall, responds well to I-131

59
Q

Follicular thyroid cancer (3)

A

Second commonest subtype.
Mets haematogenously to bones, lung, liver.
Survival is OK, responds to I-131

60
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer (5)

A

Uncommon.
Associated with MEN II
Calcitonin production is a buzzword.
Tendency towards local invasion, lymph nodes and haematogenous spread.
Doesn’t respond to I-131.

61
Q

Anaplastic thyroid cancer (3)

A

Uncommon, seen in elderly and previous radiation treatment.
Rapid growth, primarily lymphatic spread.
Doesn’t respond to I-131

62
Q

Hurthle cell thyroid cancer (4)

A

Uncommon. Variant of Follicular.
Seen in elderly.
Doesn’t take up I-131 as well as normal follicular.
FDG-PET most useful for surveillance.

63
Q

Thyroid mets (5)

A

“Microcalcifications” in node with papillary.
Nodes are typically bright and hyperechoic, hyperenhancing on CT and T1 bright.
Thyroid cancer is hyper vascular, and mets can bleed a lot, especially in brain.
“Miliary pattern” when it mets to lungs.
Lung mets can be occult on cross sectional imaging, and only seen on whole body scintigraphy.
If you have diffuse lung mets, treating with I-131 can cause pulmonary fibrosis.

64
Q

Parathyroid - normal anatomy (3)

A

4 parathyroid glands, located posterior to the thyroid.
Superior 2 are from the 4th branchial pouch, inferior 2 are from the 3rd branchial pouch.
Inferior 2 are more likely to be in an ectopic location

65
Q

Parathyroid adenoma (4)

A

Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism.
US: Hypoechoic lesions posterior to the thyroid.
CT: 4D scan can show early wash in and delayed wash out.
NM: Dual phase sestamibi +/- I-123 or pertechnate.
Sestamibi imaging depends on mitochondrial density and blood flow

66
Q

Parathyroid carcinoma (2)

A

Uncommon, 1% of hyperparathyroidism.
Imaging looks like adenoma, only differentiator is potential invasion of adjacent structures or cervical lymphadenopathy

67
Q

Parotid space (6)

A

Basically the parotid gland and portions of the facial nerve.
Can’t see facial nerve, but can see the retromandibular vein which runs medial to the facial nerve.
Parotid is the only saliary gland to have lymph nodes, so pathology of the gland itself or lymph nodes is possible.
Contains
- Parotid gland
- Facial nerve
- Retromandibular vein

68
Q

Pleomorphic adenoma (4)

A

Most common major (and minor) salivary gland tumour. Most commonly occurs in the parotid (can occur in submandubilar or sublingual glands).
90% occur in the superficial lobe.
Commonly T2 bright with rim of low signal.
Small malignant potential and are treated surgically.

69
Q

Superficial vs deep pleomorphic adenoma (4)

A

Involvement of the superficial (lateral to the facial nerve) or deep (medial to the facial nerve) is important for surgical approach.
Line is drawn connecting the lateral surface of posterior belly of digastric muscle, with the lateral surface of the mandibular ascening ramus, to separate superficial from deep.
Can spill and reoccur if not removed properly.

70
Q

Warthins tumour (3)

A

Second commonest benign tumour, only occurs in the parotid gland.
Usually cystic, in a male, 15% bilateral, associated with smoking.
Takes up pertechnate, and is basically the only parotid tumour to do so.

71
Q

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (4)

A

Most common malignant tumour of the minor salivary glands.
Smaller the gland, the more common the malignant tumours and the bigger the gland, the more common the benign tumours.
Variable appearance based on histologic grade.
Associated with radiation

72
Q

Adenoid cystic carcinoma (2)

A

Malignant salivary gland tumour, favours minor glands but can affect the parotid.
Common for perineural spread.

73
Q

Lymphoma (4)

A

Can get primary or secondary. Only occurs in the parotid because it’s the only salivary gland with lymph nodes.
If bilateral, think Sjogrens.
Sjogrens have massively elevated risk of parotid lymphoma.
Appearance is variable, like other lymphomas.

74
Q

Acute parotitis (5)

A

Obstruction of flow of secretions is commonest cause.
Likely due to stone in Stensen’s duct, which will become dilated.
Stones are calcium phsophate.
Post infectious parotitis is usually bacterial.
Mumps is commonest viral cause.
Sialography is contraindicated in the acute setting.

75
Q

Benign lymphoepithelial disease (3)

A

Bilateral mixed solid and cystic lesions with diffusely enlarged parotid glands.
Seen in HIV
Painless, unlike parotitis.

76
Q

Sjogrens (5)

A

Autoimmune lymphocyte induced destruction of the gland.
“Dry eyes and dry mouth”
Typically women in their 60s.
Hugely (1000x) increased risk of non-hodgkins MALT type lymphoma.
Honeycombed appearance of the gland.

77
Q

Carotid space (4)

A

Contains:
- Carotid artery
- Jugular vein
- Portions of CN 9, 10, 11
- Internal jugular chain lymph nodes.

78
Q

Carotid space tumours - DDx (4)

A

Paraganglioma
Schwannoma
Neurofibroma
Lymph nodes: mets from SCC frequently affect this area

79
Q

Paragangliomas (7)

A

3 different types, based on location, with similar imaging features.
Hypervascular (intense tumour blush) with salt and pepper appearance on MRI from heterogeneity and flow voids.
Can be multiple or bilateral in familial conditions.
111In Octreotide accumulates in these tumours
Locations/types:
Carotid body tumour - at the carotid bifurcation, splaying the ICA and ECA
Glomus jugulare - skull base, often destroys jugular foramen and/or middle ear
Glomus vagale - above carotid bifurccation, below jugular foramen.
Glomus tympanicum - confined to middle ear. “oberlying the cochlear promontory. Middle ear is intact

80
Q

Schwannoma (5)

A

Can involve 9th, 10th, 11th and even 12th cranial nerves.
Not very vascular (unlike paraganglioma)
No salt and pepper on MRI (unlike paraganglioma)
Not 111In-octreotide avid (unlike paraganglioma)
No flow voids (unlike paraganglioma)

81
Q

Lemierre syndrome (4)

A

Thrombophlebitis of the jugular veins with distant metastatic sepsis, usually septic emboli in the lung.
Found in setting of oropharyngeal infection (pharyngitis, tonsillitis, Peritonsillar abscess) or recent ENT surgery
Caused by Fusibacterium Necrophorum

82
Q

Masticator space (3)

A

Contains muscles of mastication (masticator, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoids)
Angle and ramus of mandible and inferior alveolar nerve.
This space extends superiorly along the side of the skull, via temporalis muscle. Aggressive neoplasm or infection may ride up here

83
Q

Odontogenic infection (3)

A

Most common cause of masticator space mass in adult.
Should look at mandible on bone windows next.
Look for spread via pterygopalatine fossa to orbital apex and cavernous sinus.

84
Q

Sarcomas (2)

A

Can get rhabdomyosarcomas in the masticator space in kids.
Also sarcomas from the mandible (chondrosarcoma favours the TMJ)

85
Q

Cavernous haemangiomas (3)

A

Identified by presence of phleboliths.
Venous or lymphatic malformations may involve multiple compartments/spaces.
Congenital pathology and aggressive infection/cancer tends to be trans-spacial.

86
Q

Perineural spread (3)

A

Spread from head and neck primary along the 5th cranial nerve.
Occurs classically in:
- adenoid cystic minor salivary tumours
- melanoma

87
Q

Nerve sheath tumours (2)

A

Schwannoma or neurofibroma of V3 in the masticator space.
Schwannoma is more likely to cause foramina expansion vs perineural tumour spread.

88
Q

Retropharyngeal space/danger space (3)

A

Behind the middle layer of the deep cervical fascia, but anterior to the alar fascia.
Danger space is actually just posterior to the “true” retropharyngeal space, behind the layer of alar fascia.
It’s a potential space, can’t see unless it’s distended.
Infection in the danger space tracts down into the mediastinum, so pus (or cancer) can get right into the mediastinum.

89
Q

Retropharyngeal space/danger space infection (3)

A

Involvement of the retropharyngeal space most often occurs from spread from the tonsillar tissue.
Enhancing soft tissue and stranding in the space.
Should evaluate for spread of infection into the mediastinum.

90
Q

Necrotic nodes/squamous cell mets in the retropharyngeal/danger space (3)

A

SCC mets or suppurative infection to the lateral retropharyngeal nodes of Rouviere.
Papillary thyroid cancer can also met here.
Lymphoma can involve these nodes, but won’t be necrotic until treated.

91
Q

Grisel’s syndrome (2)

A

Torticollis with atlanto-axial joint inflammation, seen in H&N surgery or retropharyngeal abscess

92
Q

Parapharyngeal space (8)

A

Primerily a ball of fat with a few branches of the trigeminal nerves, and pterygoid veins.
Mets and infections can directly spread into this space (SCC from tonsils, tongue, larynx).
Cancer and infection can spread rapidly in a vertical direction through this fat.
Bordered on 4 sides by different spaces
- Carotid space posteriorly
- Parotid space laterally
- Masticator space ateriolaterally
- Superficial mucosal space medially
Masses here will cause opposite direction displacement of the parapharyngeal space

93
Q

Lymph node anatomy - trivia (levels) (5)

A

Anterior belly of digastric separates 1A from 1B.
Stylohyoid muscle (posterior submandibular gland) separates 1b from 2A.
Spinal accessory nerve (Jugular) separates 2A from 2B.
Vertical borders:
- 2-3 = lower hyoid
- 3-4 = lower cricoid

94
Q

Floor of mouth SCC (2)

A

Classically smoker/drinker if old, HPV if young.
Necrotic level 2 nodes can be a presentation.

95
Q

Nasopharyngeal SCC (5)

A

More common in asians and has bimodal distribution (age 15-30, and age >40).
Involvement of parapharyngeal space results in worse prognosis (compared to nasal cavity or oropharynx invasion).
Most common location is the Fossa of Rosenmuller (FOR).
If you see unilateral mastoid effusion or pathological retropharyngeal node, look in FOR.
Earliest sign of nasopharyngeal SCC is the effacement of fat within the FOR.
If you see a supraclavicular node, look closely at the bones for mets, especially clivus.

96
Q

Laryngeal SCC (3)

A

Role of radiology here is staging rather than primary diagnois.
Subdivided into supraglottic, glottic and infraglottic.
Transglottic would refer to an aggressive cancer that crosses the laryngeal ventricle.

97
Q

Laryngeal SCC trivia (6)

A

Glottic SCC has best outcome (least lymphatics) and most common.
Subglottic is least common, can be clinically silent until nodes involved.
Subglottic tumours are often small compared to nodal burden.
Fixation of the cords indicates at least T3 tumour.
Only reliable sign of cricoid invasion is tumour on both sides of the cartilage (irregular sclerotic cartilage can be normal).
Invasion of the cricoid cartilage is a contraindication to all types of laryngeal conservation surgery (cricoid cartilage is necessary from post op stability of the vocal cords).
Paraglottic space involvement makes the tumour T3 and “transglottic”. Best seen in coronals.

98
Q

Laryngocele (3)

A

Laryngeal saccule dilates with fluid or air.
Dilated because of obstruction.
15% of obstructions are due to tumours.

99
Q

Vocal cord paralysis (2)

A

Affected side will have an expanded ventricle (the opposite side with cancer).
If seen on the left, next step is to look for recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement at the AP window.

100
Q

Coloboma (3)

A

Focal discontinuity of the globe (failure of choroid fissure to close).
Usually posterior.
Unilateral is likely sporadic. Bilateral = CHARGE syndrome (Coloboma, Heart, GU, ears)

101
Q

Persistent Hyperplastic Primary Virteous (PHPV). (4)

A

Failure of embryonic occular blood supply to regress.
Can lead to retinal detachment.
Classic look is small eye (microphthalmia) with increased density in the vitreous.
No calcifications.

102
Q

Coat’s disease (5)

A

Due to retinal telangiectasias, results in leaky blood and subretinal exudate.
Can lead to retinal detachment.
Seen in young boys, usually unilateral.
NOT calcified (unlike retinoblastoma).
Smaller globe (unlike retinoblastoma).

103
Q

Retinal detachment (3)

A

Can occur due to PHPV or Coats.
Can also be due to trauma, sickle cell or old age.
Imaging: V or Y shaped appearance due to lifted up retinal leaves and subretinal fluid (as seen in PHPV).

104
Q

Globe size trivia (4)

A

Retinoblastoma and toxocariasis - normal size.
PHPV - small size, normal birth age
Retinopathy of prematurity - bilateral small
Coats - smaller size

105
Q

Orbital nerve glioma (5)

A

Almost always <20YO.
Expansion and enlargement of the entire nerve.
Bilateral associated with NF1.
Most often WHO grade 1 pilocystic astrocytomas.
If sporadic, can be GBMs, highly aggressively.

106
Q

Optic nerve sheath meningioma (2)

A

“tram track” calcifications or “doughnut” appearance with circumferential enhancement around the optic nerve.

107
Q

Orbital pseudotumour (5)

A

IgG4 idiopathic inflammatory conditions, involving the extraoccular muscles.
Looks like expanded muscle.
Painful, unilateral, most commonly involves lateral rectus and doesn’t spare the myotendinous insertions.
Graves does not cause pain and does spare the myotendinous insertions, unlike this.
Gets better with steroids. Classically T2 dark.

108
Q

Tolosa Hunt syndrome (4)

A

Histology same as orbital pseudotumour, but instead involves cavernous sinus.
Painful (just like pseudotumour), presents with multiple cranial nerve palsies.
Responds to steroids like a pseudotumour.

109
Q

Lymphocytic hypophysitis (3)

A

Same as orbital pseudotumour and tolosa hunt, except it’s pituitary gland.
Enlarged pituitary stalk, in a post partum/3rd trimester woman.
Looks like pituitary adenoma, but classically T2 dark rim

110
Q

Dermoid (3)

A

Most common benign congenital orbital mass.
Usually superior and lateral, arising from the frontozygomatic suture, and presenting in the first 10 years of life.
Contains fat, like any dermoid.

111
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma (3)

A

Most common extra-occular orbital malignancy in children (dermoid is most common benign orbital mass in child).
40% are in head and neck, and then most common in the head and neck.
Still rare overall

112
Q

Metastatic neuroblastoma (3)

A

Classic appearance of “Raccoon eyes” on physical exam.
Classic location is periorbital tumour infiltration with associated proptosis.
Basilar skill fracture can also cause the raccoon eyes.

113
Q

Metastatic breast cancer (2)

A

Unlike primary orbital tumours which cause proptosis, breast cancer mets cause desmoplastic reaction and enophthalmos

114
Q

Lymphoma (4)

A

Association with Chlamydia Psittaci (associated with birds) and MALT lymphoma of the orbit.
Usually involves upper outer orbit, closely associated with lacrimal gland.
Enhances homogenously, restricts diffusion, just like the brain.

115
Q

Melanoma (2)

A

Most common intra-occular lesion in adult. Usually the answer of enhancing soft tissue mass in the back of an adult’s eye.
“Collar button shaped” - related to Bruch’s membrane

116
Q

Retinoblastoma (5)

A

Most common primary globe malignancy.
Due to faulty RB suppressor gene on chromosome 13, also responsible for osteosarcomas, hence risk of facial osteosarcoma with radiotherapy.
Calcification in globe of a child is usually this.
Globe should be normal in size or bigger.
Usually seen before age 3.
Can be bilateral in 30%, trilateral (both eyes and pineal gland) or quadrilateral (both eyes, pineal and suprasellar)

117
Q

Lymphangioma (5)

A

Mix of venous and lymphatic malformations.
Ill-defined and lack a capsule.
Usually infiltrative (multispacial), involving pre septal, septal, post septal and extraconal locations.
Fluid-fluid levels are most likely finding in questions.
Do NOT increase with valsalva.

118
Q

Varix (4)

A

Occur due to weakness in post capillary venous wall, giving massive dilatation of the valveless orbital veins.
They distend with valsalva.
Most common cause of spontaneous orbital haemorrhage.
Can thrombose and present with pain.

119
Q

Carotid-cavernous fistula (3)

A

Direct (due to trauma) or indirect (occurs randomly, usually postmenopausal women).
Direct is a communication between intracavernous ICA and cavernous sinus.
Indirect is dural shunt between meningeal branches of the ECA and cavernous sinus.

120
Q

Pulsatile exophthalmus causes (2)

A

C-C fistula is commonest.
NF1 can also cause it from sphenoid wing dysplasia

121
Q

Pre-septal/post-septal cellulitis (4)

A

Location of orbital infections are described by their relationship to the orbital septum.
Orbital septum originates from the periosteum of the orbit, and inserts in the palpebral tissue along the tarsal plate.
Pre-septal infections usually start in adjacent structures, usually teeth and face
Post-septal infections are usually from paranasal sinusitis.

122
Q

Dacrocystitis (3)

A

Inflammation and dilatation of the lacrimal sac.
Well circumscribed round rim enhancing lesion, centered in the lacrimal fossa.
Due to obstruction then bacterial infection (staph and strep)

123
Q

Orbital subperiosteal abscess (2)

A

Inflammation under the periosteum can progress to abscess formation.
Usually associated with ethmoid sinusitis.

124
Q

Optic neuritis (4)

A

Enhancement of optic nerve without enlargement of the nerve/sheath complex.
70% unilateral, and painful.
Often see intracranial or spinal cord demyelination, in the setting of Devics (neuromyelitis optica).
50% of patients with acute optic neuritis will develop MS.

125
Q

Papilloedema

A

Can sometimes see dilatation of the optic nerve sheath.

126
Q

Thyroid orbitopathy (6)

A

Seen in 1/4 of Graves cases, most common cause of exophthalmos.
Antibodies that activate TSH receptors also activate orbital fibroblasts and adipocytes.
Risk of compressive optic neruopathy.
Enlargement of ONLY MUSCLE BELLY (spares tendons, unlike pseudotumour)
NOT painful (unlike pseudotumour)
Order of involvement: Inferior rectus > Medial rectus > Superior rectus > Lateral rectus > Superior oblique