01- (TCEPP) Introductory Microbiology and Susceptibility Testing (Exam #1) Flashcards

1
Q

Prokaryote

A

Organisms without a true nucleus
Size: 0.5-5 µm
(Bacteria)

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2
Q

Eukaryote

A

Organisms with a true nucleus
Size: >10 µm
(Fungi, Parasites)

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3
Q

Facultative Anaerobes

A

Grow equally well aerobically and anaerobically

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4
Q

Aerobic

A

A condition in which microorganisms grow with oxygen.

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5
Q

Anaerobic

A

A condition in which microorganisms grow without oxygen

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6
Q

Enteric pathogen

A

Microorganisms in the gastrointestinal tract that cause disease.

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7
Q

Normal flora

A

Microorganisms that normally live in various areas of the human body.

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8
Q

Facultative anaerobe

A

Microorganisms that grow equally well aerobically and anaerobically

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9
Q

BT (Bioterrorism)

A

The deliberate release of viruses, bacteria or other germs (agents) used to cause illness or death in people, animals, or plants.

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10
Q

Nosocomial Infection

A

An infection acquired in a health care setting

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11
Q

Flagella

A

An anatomical feature that allows most bacteria to become motile.

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12
Q

Monotrichous

A

Bacteria that have a single flagellum (e.g., Vibrio cholerae)

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13
Q

Lophotrichous

A

Bacteria that have multiple flagella located at the same spot on the bacterial surfaces which act in concert to drive the bacteria in a single direction. (e.g., H. pylori, Pseudomonas putida)

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14
Q

Amphitrichous

A

Bacteria that have a single flagellum on each of two opposite ends (only one flagellum operates at a time, allowing the bacterium to reverse course rapidly by switching which flagellum is active). (e.g., Campylobacter jejuni)

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15
Q

Peritrichous

A

Bacteria that have flagella projecting in all directions (e.g., E. coli)

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16
Q

What type of stain is the Gram Stain?

A

-A Differential stain placing most bacteria into 2 groups- gram-positive and gram-negative.

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17
Q

Explain the Heat Fixation Method

A

To heat fix, you can pass the slide quickly through a flame 2 to 3 times or by placing the slide on a slide warmer at 65ºC for 10 minutes. Allow the slide to cool to room temperature.

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18
Q

Explain the Methanol Fixation Method

A
  • Methanol fixation can be performed by applying methanol to the air dried slide for 1 minute, draining off excess by tilting the slide, then allowing it to completely air-dry

* Methanol fixation is the preferred method, as it does not create aerosols and has fewer changes in cellular morphology.

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19
Q

Important Reminders about fixation of slides

A
  • Allow the smear to air dry completely before fixing with heat or methanol.
  • Heat fixing before the smear has completely air dried can cause aerosolization and/or cell breakage, causing the cells to appear distorted after staining.
  • Methanol fixing the smear before it is completely dry, can cause the specimen to wash off the slide.
  • Excessive heating can crack the microscope slide and/or rupture the cells of the specimen.
  • Fixing the smear kills the organisms and causes the cells to adhere to the microscope slide so they do not wash off during the staining process
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20
Q

Differential Stain

A

A staining technique that allows the distinct visual difference between organism structures or components. For example, Gram positive bacteria stain dark purple and Gram negative bacteria stain red to pink.

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21
Q

Explain the difference between Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Bacteria

A
  • Due to the difference in the cell wall structure of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, they will retain the Gram stain differently.
  • Gram-positive bacteria have cell walls with a thick layer of peptidoglycan, allowing them to retain the primary stain. The primary stain, crystal violet, will cause Gram-positive bacteria to stain purple in color.
  • In contrast, Gram-negative bacteria have cell walls with a thin layer of peptidoglycan and high lipid content. These bacteria stain pink because crystal violet is not retained through the decolorization step.
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22
Q

Explain The Gram Staining Process

A
  1. Apply the primary stain, crystal violet, to a fixed smear
  2. Add mordant, Gram’s Iodine
  3. Decolorize primary stain using decolorizer
  4. Counterstain using safranin
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23
Q

Describe

Primary Stain (step #1)

A
  • The first reagent of the Gram stain is crystal violet. It is an alkaline dye and the first stain applied to a fixed smear.
  • During this step, the crystal violet dye is binding to the cell wall of the bacteria.
  • If you look at the slide under a microscope at this point, the smear will be purple and all cells will be stained purple.
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24
Q

Describe

Mordant (step #2)

A
  • Gram’s iodine (depending on the kit, this may be called by a different name) is the second reagent used when performing a Gram stain. This is known as the mordant.
  • During this step, the iodine binds with the crystal violet to form a crystal violet-iodine, insoluble, complex that binds to the peptidoglycan layer of the bacterial cells.
  • After this step, if you look at the slide under a microscope, the smear and all cells will still be purple.
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25
Q

Describe

Decolorizer (step # 3)

A
  • Decolorizer is the third reagent used in the Gram stain procedure. An acetone–alcohol mixture or pure alcohol can be used to perform this step.
  • During this step, the decolorizer removes the lipid membrane from Gram negative cells. This results in leaching of the crystal violet–iodine complex, leaving the Gram-negative cells colorless. Gram-positive cells will retain the primary stain; remaining purple in color.
  • This step is the most crucial because cells can easily become under–decolorized, if the decolorizer is not left on long enough; or over–decolorized if the decolorizer is left on too long.
  • At this stage the smear may appear colorless, but under a microscope the Gram-positive cells will be purple and the Gram-negative cells will be colorless.
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26
Q

Describe

Counterstain (Step # 4)

A
  • The fourth and final reagent of the Gram stain is safranin. Safranin is used as a counterstain.
  • During this step, the counterstain will stain the colorless cells of Gram-negative bacteria, pink. If you do not add the counterstain, the Gram-negative cells will remain colorless.
  • Looking at this slide under a microscope, the Gram-positive cells will be dark purple and the Gram-negative cells will be red to pink in color.
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27
Q

Describe

Results and Interpretation of Gram Stain

A
  • Gram-positive cells will appear dark purple, after the Gram stain procedure, due to retaining the crystal violet–iodine complex within the thick peptidoglycan layer.
  • Gram-negative cells will appear red to pink, after the Gram stain procedure, due to the crystal violet–iodine complex leaching out during the decolorization process; then being counterstained with safranin.
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28
Q

What are some reasons for Gram Variable Results?

A

Some bacteria can produce Gram variable results, in which there will be both Gram-positive and negative cells.

Gram variable outcomes may also be a result of:

  • An uneven direct smear
  • A direct smear made from an older culture
  • Damaged cell walls
  • Under–decolorization
  • Over–decolorization
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29
Q

What are some Common Problems with the Gram Stain?

A
  • The quality of your smear preparation will directly affect the quality of your Gram stain. For example, smears that are too thick can lead to erroneous Gram stain results because the cells are clumped together.
  • Under decolorizing your smear can cause Gram-negative cells to retain the crystal violet-iodine complex. This will cause the cells to appear purple instead of pink.
  • Over decolorization can occur if you leave the decolorizer on the slide too long. This will result in Gram-positive bacteria losing the crystal violet–iodine complex, therefore staining pink as seen in the picture to the right.
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30
Q

When is the gram stain performed?

A

It is routinely performed on certain specimen types, especially those collected from normally sterile sites.

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31
Q

Why is the gram stain important or helpful?

A

Gram stain morphology can guide species identification

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32
Q

What type of organisms have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall and retain the purple crystal violet/iodine complex during the decolorizer step?

A

Gram positive organisms

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33
Q

What type of organisms have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall with lipopolysaccaharide outer membranes and lose the crystal violet/iodine complex during the decolorization step and are visualized using the red safranin counterstain?

A

Gram negative organisms

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34
Q

EXAMPLES OF ARRANGEMENT OF BACTERIAL CELLS
GRAM-POSITIVE BACTERIA

A
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35
Q

MORPHOLOGY OF BACTERIAL CELLS
(SOME BASIC SHAPES)

A
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36
Q

Gram stain morphology

Staphylococcus aureus

A

Gram positive cocci in clusters (grape-like)

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37
Q

Gram stain morphology

Micrococcus spp.

A

Large Gram-positive cocci in clusters and tight packets of tetrads

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38
Q

Gram stain morphology

Enterococcus faecalis

A

Gram-positive cocci, often oval form diplococci and short chains

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39
Q

Gram stain morphology

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A
  • Gram-positive cocci in pairs
  • Lancet forms with pointed ends
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40
Q

Gram stain morphology

Aerococcus spp.

A

Gram-positive cocci in singles and clusters

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41
Q

Gram stain morphology

Corynebacterium spp.

A
  • Gram positive bacilli, “diphtheroid-like”
  • Often arranged in V forms or pallisades
  • Chinese letter appearing
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42
Q

Gram stain morphology

Bacillus spp

A
  • GPB with blunt ends (boxy)
  • Tendancy to form long chains, w/ or w/o spores, can be GVB
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43
Q

Gram stain morphology

Clostridium perfringens

A
  • Straight anaerobic gram positive bacilli with blunt ends.
  • Able to form capsules
  • Spores are rarely seen (subterminal)
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44
Q

Gram stain morphology

Listeria monocytogenes

A

Small gram positive rods often coccobacilli

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45
Q

Gram stain morphology

Lactobacillus spp.

A

Straight gram positive rods, often in chains

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46
Q

Gram stain morphology

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Gram positive cocci in chains

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47
Q

Gram stain morphology

Neisseria species

A

Gram negative cocci that typically appear in pairs with opposing sides flattened “kidney bean or hamburger bun” appearance

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48
Q

Gram stain morphology

Moraxella catarrhalis

A

Gram negative diplococci (kidney bean/hambuger bun)

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49
Q

Gram stain morphology

Escherichia coli

A

Gram negative bacilli

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50
Q

Gram stain morphology

Klebsiella pneumoniae

A
  • Gram-negative bacilli (short, chunky, blunt ends)
  • Has the ability to form capsules
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51
Q

Gram stain morphology

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Gram-negative bacilli (thin, small)

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52
Q

Gram stain morphology

Acinetobacter baumannii complex

A

Gram-negative coccobacilli (plump)

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53
Q

Gram stain morphology

Pasteurella multocida

A

Tiny Gram-negative coccobacilli, bipolar staining may be present

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54
Q

Gram stain morphology

Haemophilus influenzae

A

Gram-negative bacilli / coccobacilli pleomorphic, strand forms
SMALL

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55
Q

Gram stain morphology

Campylobacter jejuni

A

**Small Gram-negative spiral-shaped, sea gulls

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56
Q

Gram stain morphology

Yersinia pestis

A
  • Gram negative short rods or coccobacilli
  • Tend to retain staining at the end of the cells (bipolar staining)
  • “Safety pin” appearance
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57
Q

Quantitative Isolation or Streaking

A

Primarily used for urine cultures. Plates are inoculated using a calibrated loop to deliver a specified volume. The urine is mixed well, and the calibrated loop (0.01 or 0.001 mL) is vertically inserted into the urine and transferred to the culture medium by making a single streak down the center of the plate. Without flaming, the loop is streaked back and forth through the original inoculum.

The number of colonies that grow are multiplied by the dilution factor. (eg, if 0.001mL loop is used, 35 colonies would translate into 35,000 colony forming units. (CFU/mL)

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58
Q

Semi-quantitative or Isolation Streaking

A

The general-purpose isolation streak is useful for most specimens. The relative number of organisms can be estimated based on the extent of growth beyond the original area of inoculum. Growth in the first quadrant can be graded as 1 +, or light growth; growth in the second or third quadrant can be graded as 2 + to 3 +, or moderate growth; and growth in the third or fourth quadrant can be graded as 4 +, or heavy growth. Also Rare, Few, Moderate or Many Growth.

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59
Q

Nonselective media

A

Adequately supports the growth of most microorganism. (eg, trypticase soy agar)

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60
Q

Enriched media

A

Growth enhancers such as 5% sheep blood or vitamins are added to nonselective media (eg, 5% sheep blood agar, chocolate agar)

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61
Q

Differential media

A

•Employs factor(s) which allows colonies to demonstrate metabolic characteristics to distinguish them from others

Example: MacConkey agar (MAC) which differentiate gram-negative bacilli that can ferment lactose from those that do not ferment lactose.

Some media can have characteristics that would allow them to be classified as enriched AND differential or selective AND differential.

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62
Q

Selective Media

A

Selects for growth of a group of organisms by adding inhibitory substances such as antimicrobials, dyes or alcohol.

These substances inhibit the growth of other organisms. (eg, MacConkey agar selects for growth of most facultative gram-negative bacilli and inhibits the growth of gram-positive cocci and bacilli and gram-negative cocci.

63
Q

Blood Agar
(BAP)
Primary Media

A

Enriched (Sometimes considered differential due to hemolytic reactions.)
• Included for most specimens
• Almost all bacteria & yeast will grow
• Sheep blood is useful for distinguishing species that hemolyze the red blood cells around and under the colony

Ingredients: Trypticase soy agar; 5% sheep blood

64
Q

Chocolate Agar
(CHOC)
Primary Media

A

Enriched
• Included for most specimens
• Almost all bacteria & yeast will grow, including fastidious species such as Haemophilus spp, Neisseria gonorrheae and Francisella tularensis

Ingredients: GC agar base with meat and casein peptones; 2% hemoglobin provides X factor (hemin); IsoVitaleX provides V factor (NAD)

65
Q

MacConkey Agar
(MAC)
Primary Media

A

Selective & Differential
• Included for most specimens that may contain Enterobacteriaceae or mixtures of flora
Gram-negative rods will grow
Gram-positive organisms are inhibited
Lactose-fermenters are pink; non-lactose fermenters are clear colonies

Ingredients: Peptone base; bile salts & crystal violet inhibit gram-positive organisms;1% lactose (sole carbohydrate source); neutral red indicator is pink-red if lactose is fermented

66
Q

Campy Blood Agar (CAMPY)
Stool Culture Media

A

Enriched & Selective
• Isolation of Campylobacter species in stool cultures
• Antibiotics inhibit gram-positive and gram-negative flora organisms in stool
• Cultures are incubated at 42°C in microaerophilic conditions to help inhibit normal enteric (stool) flora & allow Campylobacter to grow

Ingredients: Brucella agar base with sheep blood provide heme and other growth factors; five antimicrobial agents: trimethoprim, vancomycin, amphotericin B, polymyxin, cephalothin.

67
Q

Atmospheric Conditions for incubation:

A

Ambient (air): 21 % oxygen, 1% CO2
CO2 -enhanced: 18% oxygen, 5-10% CO2
Microaerophilic: 5%-6% oxygen, 5-10% CO2
Anaerobic atmosphere: <1% oxygen, 5- 10% CO2

68
Q

Campy Filter Agar Plate

(Stool Culture Media)

A

Physical selection on enriched media
• Organisms are very narrow and motile, allowing passage through pores in the filter; other enteric organisms found in stool are retained on top of filter
• Cultures are incubated at 42°C in microaerophilic conditions to help inhibit normal enteric (stool) flora & allow Campylobacter to grow

Ingredients: Sheep blood agar (BAP) with 0.45 micron filter

69
Q

Hektoen Enteric Agar (HEK)

(Stool culture media)

A

Selective & Differential
• Differentiates enteric pathogens from enteric flora in stool cultures
• Salmonella spp. produce green colonies with black centers; Shigella spp. produce green colonies
• Lactose-fermenters e.g. E. coli produce orange colonies; non-lactose fermenters are green or green with black centers
• Gram-positive organisms are inhibited

Ingredients: Yeast extract & peptone base; bile salts inhibit gram-positives; lactose, sucrose, salicin differentiate fermenters and non-fermenters; ferric ammonium citrate & sodium thiosulfate determine H2S production (black center in colony); bromthymol blue indicator

70
Q

MacConkey Broth

(Stool culture media)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Used for isolation of Enterobacteriaceae, especially shiga toxin-producing E. coli.
• Tubes should be incubated with caps loosened during incubation to allow air exchange.
• Organisms that ferment lactose e.g. E. coli turn the media yellow and cloudy.

Ingredients: Peptone base; bile salts (Oxgall) inhibit gram-positive organisms; lactose; Brom Cresol purple indicator

71
Q

MacConkey Sorbitol Agar (MACSORB)

(Stool Culture Media)

A

Selective & Differential
• Isolation and differentiation of sorbitol-negative E. coli such as some Shiga toxin-producing strains (e.g. E. coli O157:H7)
• Sorbitol-negative colonies are clear; sorbitol positive colonies are pink
• Gram-positive organisms are inhibited

Ingredients: Peptone base; bile salts & crystal violet gram-positive organisms; 1% sorbitol (sole carbohydrate source); neutral red indicator

72
Q

Selenite F Broth

(Stool Culture Media)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Added to enhance isolation of Salmonella & Shigella; at CCF used with pediatric samples
• Selenite inhibits Enterococcus and Enterobacteriaceae that are part of the normal gut flora
• After 12 to 18 hrs incubation the broth is sub-cultured to an agar plate for isolation of Salmonella & Shigella

Ingredients: Pancreatic digest of casein (peptones); cysteine; sodium phosphate; lactose; sodium selenite

73
Q

Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose (TCBS)

(Stool Culture Media)

A

Selective & Differential
• Isolation of Vibrio spp. from stool specimen
• Salt content inhibits most other gram-positive & gram-negative organisms
• Yellow colonies = V. cholerae or V. alginolyticus
• Green colonies = V. parahaemolyticus

Ingredients: Yeast extract & peptone base; sucrose is fermentable carbohydrate; Oxgall; sodium cholate, sodium chloride, bile salt; sodium thiosulfate; sodium citrate; bromthymol & thymol blue pH indicator

74
Q

Yersinia Agar (CIN) Cefsulodin-Irgasin-Novobiocin Agar

(Stool culture media)

A

Selective & Differential
• Isolation of Yersinia spp. & sometimes Aeromonas spp. in stool cultures
• Yersinia is a pink colony
• Antibiotics inhibit most stool flora
Cultures are incubated at room temperature.

Ingredients: Yeast extract & peptone base; bile salts & crystal violet inhibit gram-positive organisms; mannitol; cefsulodin, irgasin & novobiocin inhibit normal stool flora; neutral red indicator

75
Q

Xylose-Lysine-Deoxycholate Agar (XLD)

(Stool culture media)

A

• Used to isolated Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
• Incubated at 35°C for 24 hrs in ambient air, four different colony morphologies are possible.
o Yellow
o Yellow with black centers
o Red
o Red with black centers

Ingredients: Sucrose, lactose and xylose with phenol red being the color indicator.

76
Q

Potato Dextrose Agar (PDA)

(Mycology culture media)

A

Enriched
• Clinically important yeast and fungi will grow.
• Primarily for sterile sites since no inhibitory antibiotics are added
• Stimulates production conidia which are used in microscopic identification; stimulates pigment production from dermatophytes

Ingredients: Potato starch infusion and dextrose base; tartaric acid is added to lower pH, inhibiting bacterial growth

77
Q

Potato Dextrose Agar with Chloramphenicol (PDACH)

(Mycology culture media)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Added to specimens containing bacterial flora such as respiratory, skin, and wound sites.
• Addition of chloramphenicol to PDA helps inhibit bacteria

Ingredients: Potato starch infusion and dextrose base; tartaric acid is added to lower pH, chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial growth

78
Q

Candida CHROMagar

(Mycology culture media)

A
Differential & Selective
• Selective medium for the isolation and presumptive identification of yeast.
o Candida albicans/dublinensis – green 
o C. tropicalis – metallic blue
o C. krusei – pink
o Other species - white to mauve

Ingredients: Peptone and agar base with 0.5% chloramphenicol for bacterial inhibition. A proprietary chromogenic mix is added for color differentiation of Candida spp.

79
Q

Mycosel/Mycobiotic Agar (MYCO)

(Mycology Culture Media)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Added to contaminated specimens such as skin, hair, and nails.
• Dermatophytes and dimorphic molds will grow
• Cycloheximide inhibits some pathogenic fungi such as Cryptococcus neoformans, Aspergillus fumigatus, some Candida, and most zygomycetes.

Ingredients: Peptone and dextrose base; cyclohexamide inhibits saprobic fungi & chloramphenicol inhibits bacteria

80
Q

Lowenstein Jensen (LJ)

(Mycobacteriology Culture Media)

A

Enriched
• Used for isolation of Nocardia because media provides lipids required for growth
• Most commonly used for isolation of Mycobacteria
• Malachite green provides minimal selectivity, preventing some bacterial growth

Ingredients: Potato flour, egg, glycerol, asparagine, potassium phosphates, magnesium sulfate, sodium citrate, malachite green inhibits bacterial flora

81
Q

7H11

(Mycobacteriology Culture Media)

A

Enriched
• Used for isolation of Mycobacteria. Can be used for growth of Nocardia
• Non-selective
• Can be purchased as a slant or plate

Ingredients: Chemically defined base with OADC enrichment (oleic acid, albumin, dextrose, catalase); contains a small amount of malachite green

82
Q

7H11 Selective

(Mycobacteriology Culture Media)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Used for isolation of Mycobacteria, especially from specimens likely to be contaminated with bacterial flora.
• Contains antibiotics & an antifungal to inhibit growth of most gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, yeast, and mold
• Can be purchased as a slant or plate

Ingredients: 7H11 medium with OADC; trimethoprim, amphotericin, carbenicillin & polymixin B; contains a small amount of malachite green

83
Q

Bacteroides Bile Esculin Agar

(BBE)

A

Selective & Differential
• Used for anaerobic cultures
• Isolation and identification of Bacteroides fragilis group
• Used for specimens likely to contain mixed anaerobic flora
• Esculin is hydrolyzed yielding esculetin which reacts with ferric ammonium citrate to form a brown-black coloration
• Cultures are incubated in an anaerobic environment

Ingredients: Nutritive base of casein and soybean peptones; 20% bile inhibits gram-positives and most anaerobes other than B. fragilis group; gentamicin inhibits most facultative anaerobes; vitamin K; esculin & ferric ammonium citrate produce brown color if esculin is hydrolyzed

84
Q

BCSA Agar (Burkholderia cepacia Selective Agar)

A

Selective & Differential
• Selects for Burkholderia cepacia in respiratory specimens, especially from cystic fibrosis patients
• Inhibits most other respiratory flora
• B. cepacia colonies & surrounding media will be yellow

Ingredients: Casein peptone & yeast extract base; crystal violet, gentamicin, vancomycin & polymix B inhibit most respiratory flora; sucrose & lactose; phenol red indicator

85
Q

Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar (BCYE)

A

Enriched
• Isolation of Legionella spp.
• Also useful for isolation of Francisella and Nocardia

Ingredients: Nutritive base is yeast extract; α–ketoglutrate, iron, & L-cysteine are specific nutrients required by Legionella; charcoal is a detoxifying agent and surface tension modifier

86
Q

Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar with PAC or PAV (antibiotics) (BCYE-sel)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Isolation of Legionella species from specimens contaminated with respiratory flora
• Antibiotics inhibit normal respiratory flora: gram-positive & gram-negative organisms and yeast

Ingredients: BCYE agar with antibiotics: either PAC (polymyxin B, anisomycin & cefamandole) or PAV (polymixin B, anisomycin & vancomycin)

87
Q

CDC Anaerobic Blood Agar (CDC)

A

Enriched (Sometimes considered differential due to hemolytic reactions on blood)
• Primary medium used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria
• Non-selective, gram-positive & gram-negative rods and cocci will grow.
• Supports obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, microaerophiles & aerobes
• Cultures are incubated in an anaerobic environment

Ingredients: Trypticase soy agar with added yeast extract and 5% sheep blood; vitamin K1; hemin; cysteine

88
Q

Colistin Nalidixic Acid Agar or Columbia CNA Agar

A

Selective (sometimes considered differential)
• Included if gram-positive organisms need to be separated from gram-negative
• Gram-positive aerobic organisms such as Streptococcus, Enterococcus, & Staphylococcus will grow
• Gram-negative organisms are inhibited
• Hemolytic reactions will be observed

Ingredients: Columbia agar base with 5% sheep blood; colistin & nalidixic acid inhibit gram-negative organisms; blood allows the detection of hemolytic reactions and provides X factor (heme).

89
Q

Eosin-Methylene Blue Agar (EMB)

A

Selective & Differential
• Inhibits Gram-positive bacteria
• E. coli can ferment lactose and will form blue-black metallic colonies where-as Enterobacter spp. will form pink colonies. Nonfermenter colonies are colorless or light purple.

Ingredients: Eosin Y and methylene blue dyes, selective ingredients to inhibit Gram-positive organisms. Lactose and sucrose are incorporated for fermentation.

90
Q

Kanamycin Vancomycin Laked Blood Agar (KVLB)

A

Selective
• Supports the growth of Bacteroides spp. and Prevotella spp., yeast and kanamycin resistant facultative gram negative organisms will also grow.

Ingredients: Kanamycin will inhibit most facultative gram-negative bacilli, vancomycin which inhibits most gram-positive organisms. Laked blood accelerates the brown-black colony color produced by some Prevotella spp.

91
Q

Martin Lewis Agar (ML)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Selects for pathogenic Neisseria including N. meningitidis & N. gonorrhoeae.
• Most gram-positive and gram-negative organisms and yeast are inhibited
• Included for all genital specimens

Ingredients: Chocolate agar base; high concentration of vancomycin inhibits gram-positive; anisomycin inhibits yeast; colistin inhibits gram negative rods; trimethoprim inhibits swarming Proteus

92
Q

Modified Thayer Martin Agar (MTM)

A

Enriched & Selective
• Selects for pathogenic Neisseria including N. meningitidis & N. gonorrhoeae.
• Most gram-positive and gram-negative organisms and yeast are inhibited
• Used for genital specimens

Ingredients: Similar to ML agar; incorporates nystatin instead of anisomycin

93
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

A

Selective & Differential
• Useful in the recovery and ID of Staphylococci spp. from mixed microbiota.
• S. aureus can ferment mannitol (yellow) whereas other Staphylococcus species (pink) can tolerate the salt content but not ferment the mannitol.

Ingredients: High salt concentration (7.5%), mannitol, phenol red being the color indicator.

94
Q

Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar

(PEA)

A

Selective
• Included if gram-positive organisms need to be separated from gram-negative; included for anaerobic cultures
• Gram-positive aerobic and anaerobic organisms such as Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Staphylococcus, & Peptostreptococcus will grow
• Facultative gram-negative rods such as Enterobacteriaceae are inhibited
• Some anaerobic gram-negative rods will grow.

Ingredients: Nutrient agar base with sheep blood; phenylethyl alcohol inhibits facultative anaerobic gram-negative bacilli; hemolytic reactions are less reliable on PEA than other blood-containing media

95
Q

Spectra MRSA Agar

A

Selective & Differential
• Selects for methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
• MRSA is most often screened from nares, axilla, umbilicus, rectal & perianal sites, but other sites may be screened by culture
• Colonies are blue

Ingredient: Content of media is proprietary, but will contain oxacillin or another selective antibiotic

96
Q

LIM Broth

A

Enriched & Selective
• Used for selective enrichment of Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae) from vaginal-rectal swab specimens
• After 18-24 hr incubation, turbid broth is subcultured to an agar plate for isolation of Group B Streptococcus.

Ingredients: Todd Hewitt broth base containing dextrose peptones, yeast extract & salt
Nalidixic acid & colistin suppress gram-negative bacteria.

97
Q

Thioglycolate Broth (THIO)

A

Enriched
• Detects a wide range of bacteria, including many anaerobes
• Helps to recover organisms in low numbers, especially in normally sterile body sites
• To prevent oxygenation media should not be shaken
• If >30% is oxidized (pink) media may be heated once in boiling water and cooled prior to use. (image left)
• When cloudy the broth is subcultured to solid agar for growth & identification of organisms

Ingredients: Dextrose, peptone, L-cystine & yeast extract base; thioglycolate consumes oxygen, permitting growth of anaerobes; cystine is a reducing agent, low concentration of agar assists in redox maintenance; resazurin is an oxidation-reduction indicator, being pink when oxidized & colorless when reduced.

98
Q

Trypticase Soy Broth (TSB)

A

Enriched
• General purpose broth used for culture
• Broth used for sterility cultures

Ingredients: Enzymatic digest of casein and soybean meal, salts, dextrose

99
Q

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

A

Minimum concentration of antibiotic required to INHIBIT the visible growth of the test organism

100
Q

Minimum bactericidal concentration

A

Minimum concentration of antibiotic required to KILL the test organism

(allows less than 0.1% of the original inoculum to survive)

101
Q

Prophylaxis

A

Antimicrobial agents are administered to prevent infection

102
Q

Treatment

A

Antimicrobial agents are administered to cure existing or suspected infection

103
Q

Penicillin binding proteins (PBP)

A

Penicillin binds to a variety of proteins in the bacterial cell membrane and cell wall, called penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs). Changes in PBPs are in part responsible for an organism becoming resistant to penicillin.

104
Q

What is the most common beta lactam/beta lactamase inhibitor combo?

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid

105
Q

Nitrocephin disks

A

Quick screen for beta-lactamase production
Nitrocephin is a cephalosporin
When you break open the beta lactam ring it changes color

106
Q

Gradient diffusion test (Epsilometer test “Etest”)

A

MIC is the point where the zone of inhibition intersects the strip
The strip has a gradient of antibiotics on it, place on bacterial lawn (0.5 McFarland), measure

107
Q

Microbroth dilution method (<=0.1mL broth volume)

A

Quantitative

Indicates concentration of drug necessary to inhibit or kill the microorganisms tested

Doubling dilutions of antibiotic in broth

Turbidity visualization = MIC

50µl or 100 µl is directly dispensed into each of the 96 wells of the microtiter tray containing lyophilized antibacterial agents

The trays are examined for growth using a reflected viewing apparatus. The growth from broth alone is used as a comparison (positive control) .

The MIC is the lowest concentration that inhibits the visual growth of the organism

108
Q

What agar plate is used for setting up AST?

A

Mueller-Hinton

109
Q

Antibiotic

A
  • Substance used to prevent or treat infection caused by bacteria and other pathogenic microorganisms.
  • Selectively inhibits a vital metabolic process of pathogens such as cell wall, DNA or protein synthesis.
  • To be clinically useful, the compound needs to reach the site of infection at a sufficient concentration for an adequate length of time.
110
Q

Zone of Inhibition

A

Zone related to disk diffusion testing; a clear area surrounding an antimicrobial disk following overnight incubation; results from diffusion of the antimicrobial molecules into the agar and inhibition of growth of the test bacterium.

111
Q

Bactericidal

A

Antimicrobial that kills a microorganism.

Or amount of antimicrobial agent required to kill.

Read any amount of growth in a microdilution MIC

For E-Test see picture

112
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

Antimicrobial that inhibits bacterial growth but does not kill the bacteria.

Measured as ≥80% reduction in growth of the organism as compared to the control well.

For E-Test see attached picture

Example: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (SXT), Linezolid

113
Q

Define

Intrinsic Resistance

A
  • Resistance that is naturally present in the microorganism. It is a property controlled by chromosomes and is related to the general physiology of the microorganism.
  • Certain organisms will always be resistant in vivo to certain antibiotics regardless of how they test in vitro.
  • Therefore this resistance is predictable once the organism is identified.
114
Q

Synergism

A

Occurs when the antimicrobial activity of a combination of antimicrobial agents is greater than the activity of the individual agents alone.

115
Q

McFarland turbidity standard when preparing an inoculum for AST

A

0.5 McFarland standard represents 1.5X10 8 colony forming units (CFU/ml)

116
Q

Acquired resistance

A
  • Bacteria can utilize plasmids, transposons, and insertion sequences to transfer resistance genes to another bacterium.
  • Can be expressed phenotypically as efflux, modification or acquisition of target sites, and enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.
  • Acquired mechanisms of resistance are caused by changes in the usual genetic makeup of a microorganism, leading to altered cellular physiology and structure. Unlike intrinsic resistance, acquired resistance may be a trait associated with only some strains of a particular species. Thus the presence of this type of resistance in any of the isolates is unpredictable.
117
Q

Susceptible (Sensitive) = S

A

An infection caused by the tested microorganism may be appropriately treated with the usually recommended dose of antibiotics.

118
Q

Intermediate = I

A

The isolate may be inhibited by attainable concentrations of certain antibiotics (e.g., the beta-lactam antibiotics) if higher dosages can be safely used or if the infection involves a body site which allows the drug to concentrate (e.g., urinary tract).

This category serves as a buffer zone that prevents slight technical artifacts from causing major interpretative discrepancies. (Gray zone)

119
Q

Resistant = R

A

Isolate is not inhibited by the concentration of antimicrobial agent normally achievable with the recommended dose, indicating specific resistance mechanisms are likely to be present.

120
Q

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI):

A
  • Subcommittee of scientists and physicians
  • Their goal is to establish standard conditions for testing methods based on laboratory investigations and assessment of clinical outcomes
  • Updated guidelines are published annually for bacteria CLSI M100
121
Q

Quantitative AST Method

A

Broth, Agar dilution, or E-Test

Measures the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) in micrograms per milliliter

Antimicrobial agents are usually tested at log2 (two-fold serial dilutions ex. 0.5, 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 etc.)

122
Q

Qualitative AST Method

A

Agar diffusion (Kirby Bauer)

Categorizes an organism as susceptible (S), intermediate (I) or resistant (R) to a particular antimicrobial agent

123
Q

Macrobroth dilution

A

(>=1 ml broth volume) – Very rarely performed in clinical labs.

124
Q

Advantages of Microbroth Dilution AST

A
  1. Reliable standardized method
  2. Convenient simultaneous testing of several antimicrobial agents against individual organisms
  3. Wide variety of products are commercially prepared; larger institutions can choose custom panels according to specific formulary needs
  4. Results of testing may be determined by visual exam or semi automated instrumentation
  5. It is considered a reference method in North America
125
Q

Agar Dilution MIC

A

A series of plates containing various concentrations of each antimicrobial agent are prepared.

Test bacteria (0.5 McFarland) are spot-inoculated onto each plate using a multipronged replicating device.

After overnight incubation, the MIC is read as the lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent that inhibits the visible growth of the test bacterium

Currently considered the reference method for antimicrobial susceptibility testing of anaerobes and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

126
Q

Vitek 2 (for Automated Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing)

A

This system facilitates standardized susceptibility testing in a closed environment with validated results and recognition of an organism’s microbial resistance mechanism in 6 to 8 hours for most clinically relevant bacteria.

Inoculum is automatically introduced via a filling tube into a miniaturized plastic 64-well, closed card containing specified concentrations (low, mid and high) of antibiotics.

Cards are incubated in a temperature-controlled incubator

Optical readings are performed every 15 minutes to measure the amount of light transmitted through each well and compared to the growth well without antibiotics.

Algorithmic analysis of the growth kinetics in each well is performed by the system’s software to derive the MIC data

The MIC results are validated with the Advanced Expert System (AES) software.

127
Q

Disk Diffusion Method: (Kirby Bauer)

A

Allows categorization of most bacterial isolates as susceptible, intermediate or resistant to a variety of antimicrobial agents. (Qualitative)

The antibiotic diffuses from the disk, gradually decreasing in concentration as the distance from the disk increases.

At a critical point the amount of antibiotic is unable to visibly inhibit the organism being tested; thus, a zone of inhibition develops.

The point of this zone of inhibition is directly related to the MIC value.

128
Q

Disk Diffusion Method: (Kirby Bauer) Procedure

A
  1. A standardized suspension of the organism is spread over the surface of an agar plate (Mueller-Hinton), within 15 minutes of preparation of the inoculum. The plate is swabbed in three directions to ensure even distribution
  2. Paper disks impregnated with antibiotics are placed on the agar surface within 15 minutes of inoculation of the agar plate. Disks should be placed at least 24 mm apart.
  3. Agar plates are incubated at 35°C within 15 minutes of set-up to prevent prediffuion of the antimicrobial agents into the agar
  4. Zone of complete inhibition is measured to the nearest millimeter
129
Q

Disk Diffusion Method: (Kirby Bauer) Reading and Interpretation

A

The diameter of each inhibition zone is measured using a ruler or calipers. Plates are placed a few inches above a black, nonreflecting surface, and zones are examined from the back side (agar side) of the plate illuminated with reflected light.

130
Q

Disk Diffusion results can be correlated to the MIC

A

The qualitative results of disk diffusion assay (KB) correlates well with quantitative results from MIC tests

131
Q

Name and Recognize

Antimicrobial Targets and Mechanisms of Action (6)

A

1. Inhibition of Bacterial Cell Wall Biosynthesis

2. Inhibition of Folate Synthesis

3. Interference with DNA Replication

4. Interference with DNA Transcription

5. Interference of mRNA Translation

6. Combined Mechanisms of Action

132
Q

Antimicrobial Targets and Mechanisms of Action

Inhibition of Bacterial Cell Wall Biosynthesis

A

Function by targeting bacterial cell wall synthesis. (β-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems)

Vancomycin

133
Q

Antimicrobial Targets and Mechanisms of Action

Inhibition of Folate Synthesis

A
  • The folic acid pathway provides the essential precursor molecules needed for DNA biosynthesis in bacteria.
  • Sulfamethoxazole (SMZ) blocks the step leading to the formation of 7,8-dihydropteroate.
  • Trimethoprim (TMP) blocks the step leading to the formation of THF
  • Example of folate pathway inhibitors: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

The spectrum of activity of folate pathway inhibitors, especially when provided in combination, provides activity against the Enterobacteriaceae that cause urinary tract infections.

134
Q

Antimicrobial Targets and Mechanisms of Action

Interference with DNA Replication

A
  • The prokaryotic cell cycle consists of DNA replication followed immediately by cell division.
  • In microorganisms such as Escherichia coli, which divide in approximately 30 minutes under ideal growth conditions, DNA replication must be initiated and completed to ensure that each DNA duplex is delivered to each daughter cell.
  • Enzymes necessary for DNA replication include topoisomerases I, II, III, and IV.
  • Quinolones and fluoroquinolones (example: ciprofloxacin) are antibacterial drugs that affect DNA replication by targeting topoisomerases II (DNA gyrase) and IV.

The quinolones and fluoroquinolones are used to treat the Enterobacteriaceae, pseudomonads, Neisseria, and other gram-negative bacteria and staphylococci, enterococci, and streptococcal species other than Streptococcus pneumoniae.

135
Q

Antimicrobial Targets and Mechanisms of Action

Interference with DNA Transcription

A
  • DNA transcription is the process whereby a template DNA strand is copied into a functional RNA sequence, resulting in mature mRNA or structural RNA.
  • Rifampin, a synthetic derivative of rifamycin B, targets DNA transcription. The principle therapeutic use of rifampin is in combination with other antibacterial classes to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection.
136
Q

Antimicrobial Targets and Mechanisms of Action

Interference of mRNA Translation

A
  • Inhibits protein synthesis by targeting the ribosome (30s and 50s)
  • The cellular machinery of living organisms decodes mRNA into functional protein, a process called mRNA translation. Protein biosynthesis requires the sequential binding of the 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits to mRNA, leading to translation of the genetic message.
  • Because protein synthesis is central to cellular function, it is an excellent target for antibacterial drug product development. Thus the bacterial ribosome is a primary target of numerous drugs, with some targeting the 30S ribosomal subunit (e.g., aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, glycylcyclines) and others targeting the 50S ribosomal subunit (e.g., macrolides, lincosamides, chloramphenicol, oxazolidinones, streptogramins)
137
Q

Diagram where the β-lactamase enzyme cleaves the penicillin structure.

A
138
Q

List examples of penicillinase-resistant penicillins

A

β-lactamase inhibitors (BLIs) clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam.

139
Q

What are β-lactamases?

A

Penicillins (and cephalosporins) are called β-lactam drugs because of the importance of the β-lactam ring. An intact ring structure is essential for antibacterial activity; cleavage of the ring by penicillinases (β-lactamases) inactivates the drug.

140
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Inoculum density of organism

A

Larger zones with light inoculum and smaller zones with a heavy inoculum

141
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Timing of disk application

A
  • The antibiotic disks must be applied to the media within 15 minutes after lawn of growth is made
  • If after application of disk the plate is kept out longer than 15 minutes at room temperature, small zones may form
142
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Temperature of incubation

A

Larger zones are seen with temps less than 35degC

143
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Incubation time

A

Ideal 16-20 hours - less time does not give reliable results

144
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Depth of the agar medium

A

Thin media yields excessively large inhibition zones and vice versa

145
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Proper spacing of the disks

A

Avoids overlapping of zones

146
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Potency of antibiotic disks

A

Deterioration in contents leads to reduced size (possibly from condensation)

147
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Composition of medium

A

Affects rate of growth, diffusion of antibiotics and activity of antibiotics

148
Q

Factors Affecting Size of Zone of Inhibition:

Reading of zones

A

Subjective errors in determining the clear edge

149
Q

K. pneumoniae is intrinsically resistant to what antibiotic?

A

Ampicillin

150
Q

Enterococcus is intrinsically resistant to what class of antibiotics?

A

Cephalosporins

151
Q

Resistance to antimicrobial agents is divided into what 2 mechanisms?

A

Intrinsic and Acquired resistance

152
Q

Describe 4 mechanisms of Intrinsic Resistance

A
  1. Biofilms (communities of microorganisms that are irreversibly attached to a solid surface)
  2. Impermeability (certain antibiotics unable to penetrate the cell wall of particular microorganisms)
  3. Efflux (function as transporter proteins for the extrusion of toxic substances and antimicrobial agents from the interior of the cell to the external environment.)
  4. Enzymatic Inactivation (produce enzymes that destroy the antimicrobial agents before they are able to reach their targets.)
153
Q

Describe Acquired Mechanisms of Resistance

A
  1. Efflux (some efflux pump genes have translocated to plasmids, which can be acquired by horizontal gene exchange.)
  2. Target Site Modification (Modification of a target can reduce the binding affinity of the antimicrobial agent for the target. Modification of target sites occurs primarily by chromosomal mutation) example: vanA gene for VRE
  3. Acquisition of New Targets (become resistant by acquiring cellular targets with reduced affinity for the antimicrobial agent.) example: mecA gene for MRSA
  4. Enzymatic Inactivation of Antimicrobial Agents (An existing cellular enzyme is modified to react with the antibiotic in such a way that it no longer affects the microorganism.) Example: CTX-M for ESBL